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Pages: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10
canada4all
Publisher: Bloomsbury Reference




Number Of Pages: 480
Publication Date: 2005-09-30
ISBN-10 / ASIN: 1904970117
ISBN-13 / EAN: 9781904970118
Binding: Paperback


Book Description:

In the new edition of this bestselling dictionary, more than 16,000 terms from English-speaking and international medical practices are explained in clear, simple words. Words in specialized fields such as surgery
, nursing, pharmacy, and dentistry are all addressed with sentences and grammar notes for each entry. Filled with indispensable practical references for interns, nurses, medical secretaries, and trainees in any medical field, the clear explanations make it ideal for any student or practitioner of medicine.
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Publisher: A & C Black Publishers
File size: 2.4 MB
File type: pdf

Publisher: A & C Black Publishers

Number Of Pages: 320
Publication Date: 2006-11
ISBN-10 / ASIN: 0713677848
ISBN-13 / EAN: 9780713677843
Binding: Paperback

Simple definitions of more than 6,000 food and nutrition terms are provided in this comprehensive reference. Covering subjects such as dietary requirements, chemistry, food preparation and handling, labeling, and commercial food production, this resource is ideal for students, employers, and employees who work with food in any capacity.
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Publisher: A&C Black
File size: 7,30 MB
File type: rar'd pdf

This fully updated edition offers over 11,000 entries, each providing clear, up-to-date coverage of specialist nursing terms, including diseases, symptoms, anatomy, instruments, common drugs, and biological terms. It covers both everyday vocabulary relating to patient care, and terms from medical specializations such as psychiatry.

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Dictionary of Medical Acronyms & Abbreviations 5th ed
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Medical Calendar v3.4
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Dictionary for Clinical Trials
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Quick Medical Terminology

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Human Body Atlas Medical View 1.0
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Oxford Go Concise Medical Dictionary

Author: Elizabeth Martin (Editor)
Publisher: PPCLINK
File size: 6 Mb
File type: EXE


OxfordGo Concise Medical Dictionary - the wonderful combination between the best-selling dictionary and an engine of well-known dictionary reader (Lexisgoo). This combination bring to users a "state of the art" product together with perfect supporting services.
Oxford University Press confidently puts the valuable database under the professional production of PPCLink to offer you a product which makes all medical problems become insignificant just by one tap away.

Special Features:
* Support Windows Mobile 5.0 new
* Support Opera Brower, PocketBible new
* Support square devices Treo 700w and hw6500 series
* New smart text selection that will help you to lookup words from Pocket IE (compatible with MultiIE, Pocket Plus ) by one tap or from editable applications more easily.
* Auto-scroll in definition window
* Support anagram search
* Just by two taps to get definition from MS Reader, MobiPocket Reader Special
* Allows to add notes for keywords
* Compatible with real VGA devices
* Illustrate the content with lively images
* Possible to install on your storage card


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Author: ROSALYN CARSON-DEWITT, M.D. (Editor in Chief)
Publisher: Macmillan Reference USA, 2001
File size: 11.7 MB
File type: pdf (OCR) -> RAR+3%


Drugs, Alcohol, and Addictive Behavior

The first edition of Macmillan’s Encyclopedia of Drugs and Alcohol is an amazing compendium of information on the effects of addictions at every level. Drs. Jaffe, Anthony, Johanson, Kuhar, Moore, and Sellers and their team of experts put together an intelligently organized, complete survey of drug and alcohol addictions. Our task, then, was to respectfully update these articles to reflect the impressive amount of research performed over the five years since the publication of the original edition.
The newly renamed second edition, now called the Encyclopedia of Drugs, Alcohol, and Addictive Behavior, retains the first edition’s organizational format, but includes new and updated articles that address the exciting frontiers that have opened up in the field of addiction studies. New brain imaging techniques, an explosion of information about the human genome and its relevance to health, excellent efforts at data collection to define the scope and nature of the problem of addictions, and carefully designed studies aimed at uncovering the statistical relevance of various prevention, diagnosis, and treatment programs are all illuminating and igniting the process of understanding addictions. The encyclopedia’s name change reflects acknowledgment that behaviors not involving chemical substances (such as pathological gambling) are being seriously and thoughtfully studied, and appear to involve some physiological and psychological pathways in common with those addictions involving chemical substances.

Vol.1 - 530 p.
Vol.2 - 470 p.
Vol.3 - 429 p.
Vol.4 - 490 p.

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some other med diction u/k might be foreign
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Author: Cohen B.J.
File size: 14.8 Mb
File type: pdf


This easy-to-read, highly illustrated text serves as a comprehensive introduction to the field of medical terminology. It provides a detailed examination of normal structure and function, diseases, diagnosis and treatment. With four-color illustrations in every chapter, this informative text covers normal anatomy, physiology and clinical material. Flashcards, study exercises and case studies make this an ideal study tool. This second edition includes more key words for disorders, diagnosis and treatment, 50 additional illustrations of clinical concepts, more clinical case studies and expanded coverage of medications. Also included are crossword puzzles for review, learning objectives, chapter outlines and an index. A set of three supplementary review tapes is available to instructors, containing over three hours of study exercises.
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Author: Peter Lisowski & Charles E Oxnard
File size: 410 Kb
File type: pdf

Anatomical terms are the vocabulary of medicine. Anatomy began as a descriptive science in the days when Latin was the universal scientific language. Early anatomists described the structures they saw in that language, comparing them to common and familiar objects, or borrowing terms from the Greek and Arabic masters before them. In anatomic terminology, common Latin or Greek words are used as such for any part of the body for which the ancients had a name. For many other structures, scientific names have been invented either by using certain classical words which appear to be descriptive of the part concerned, or commonly, by combining Greek or Latin roots to form a new compound term. Memorization of such terms without understanding their meaning can lead to mental indigestion.

As an aid to comprehension, this book also presents the roots from which many of these descriptive terms and compounds are derived. For practical convenience, the book is organized into abbreviations, prefixes and suffixes, general terms common to all body regions, short lists for each major body part, and an alphabetical list covering the entire body. This pocket-sized handbook is essential for anyone wishing to learn and understand medical terms.

Contents:

* Abbreviations
* Commonly Used Prefixes
* Commonly Used Suffixes
* Terms Common to All Anatomical Regions
* Terms Important in the Upper Limb
* Terms Important in the Lower Limb
* Terms Important in the Thorax
* Terms Important in the Abdomen and Pelvis
* Terms Important in the Head and Neck
* Terms Specific to the Nervous System
* Alphabetical List of Terms

Readership: Students of medicine and dentistry and other health related sciences, physiotherapy, physical therapy, physical education, human movement,sports medicine, nurses, health workers, medical laboratory technicians andtechnologists, first aid workers, medical office personnel and administrators,and all others employing anatomical terms in basic science and clinicallyrelated work. Suitable for use in all phases of health education and as apocket book thereafter.
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Password: englishtips.org





via heart
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A Dictionary of Neurological Signs

Author: A.J. Larner
Publisher: Springer
File size: 1458 KB
File type: PDF


The Dictionary of Neurological Signs can be almost as well described in terms of what the book is not, along with details about what it is. The Dictionary is not a handbook for treatment of neuropathies. While many entries provide the latest treatment options, up-to-the-minute therapies are not discussed in bedside level detail. The Dictionary is not a board review book because it is not in Q&A format but could easily serve in that capacity since each entry is a fairly complete snapshot of a specific disorder or disease.
The Dictionary is an alphabetical listing of commonly presenting neurological diseases and disorders designed to guide the physician toward the correct clinical diagnosis. The content is focused, problem-based, concise and practical. The structured entries in this practical, clinical resource provide a thumbnail of a wide range of neurological signs. Each entry includes:

• definition of the sign

• a brief account of the clinical technique required to elicit the sign

• description of the other signs which may accompany the index sign

• explanation of pathyophysiological and/or pharmacological background

• differential diagnosis

• brief treatment details.

Where known, the entries also include neuroanatomical basis of the sign. The Dictionary provides practical, concise answers to complex clinical questions.

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6th edition

Stedman's Electronic Medical Dictionary, v6.0 CD-ROM for Windows

Stedman's Medical Dictionary 6th Edition CD-ROM
Packaged right inside the text, Stedman's Concise CD-ROM incorporates:
- All the terms and definitions of the print edition
- An easy to use interface
- A quick and powerful search engine
- Anatomical animations and images
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Black's Medical Dictionary, 41st Ed

Author: Harvey Marcovitch
Publisher: The Scarecrow Press
File size: 21.7 MB (27 MB)
File type: pdf


The 41st edition of this worldwide best-selling medical reference book presents more than 5,000 definitions and descriptions of medical terms and concepts, along with more than 100 diagrams and drawings including 16 pages of color illustrations. It includes updated and revised material on topics such as apoptosis, autism, prostheses, suicide, and transfusion. The 41st edition is an invaluable reference for a wide audience- from health care professionals and journalists to attorneys and interested consumers.
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Author: Donald Venes
Publisher: F. A. Davis Company
File size: 36.4 MB
File type: pdf (OCR) -> RAR+3%


Taber's Cyclopedic Medical Dictionary delivers 30% more terms than any other medical dictionary.
2829 pages

Key features include:
56,000 definitions (including 2,400 new terms)
More than 6,000 updated terms
Nearly 700 NEW full color images and illustrations
Almost 100 Patient Care sections and reference materials
Cautions statements have been added to almost 350 terms
Improved placement of multi-word entries in natural word order
Approximately 30,000 pronunciations
Newly updated definitions
Updated and expanded appendices
Extensive cross-linking between terms

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Mastering Scientific and Medical Writing: A Self-help Guide



Author: Silvia M. Rogers
Publisher: Springer
File size: 952 KB
File type: pdf


This self-help guide is intended for scientific and medical professionals and students who wish to improve their scientific writing skills. Exercises invite the reader to practice the most important aspects of scientific writing. Although the book addresses certain issues more troublesome to scientific communicators of a non-English language origin, the guide will be of equal benefit to those whose first language is English. If you do not only want to write but want to write well, this book is for you.

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Dorland's Medical Dictionary
MIHD: possible pass Corticalsam
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Mosby's Medical Encyclopedia

Publisher: Softkey Incorporated

Mosby's is one of the biggest names in American medical reference. For 75 years flusymptomsMosby's Medical Encyclopedia CD-ROM, containing just about all there is to know in the field of contemporary medical expertise. with the one-disc victims in Fresno, syphilitics in Seattle, plague carriers in Peoria, and hypochondriacs in Hackensack have been checking its authoritative pages for the right terms, drugs, and treatments to go with their conditions. And now it's been made even easier to scope out your

The format is admirably clear. A column on the left of the screen indicates the various available sources on the disc. Click on each to access the subsection you want. Most useful is perhaps the encyclopediaibuprofendigestive systems, amongst others. The on-disc Internet guide, which links you to pertinent Web sites and apposite net addresses, is pretty cool too. to Intaferon, temazepam to Tixylix. Equally interesting is the human atlas, which diagrammatically maps nervous, lymphatic, muscular, and itself, which gives plain, lucid, informative definitions of some 20,000 medically related terms. Below the encyclopedia is a very handy drug guide, affording the scientific background and uses of multifarious pills, medicines, and remedies, from

In fact, there's so much information here it might prove slightly overwhelming for the layman, and in some ways the CD-ROM is aimed as much at professional users as the needy family or inquisitive individual. But for those willing to swallow the odd technical term, it's still pretty hard to think of a better single-disc medical dictionary

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Oxford Learner's THESAURUS_A dictionary of synonyms (CD ROM 1st Edition 2008

Author: Chief Editor Diana lea
Publisher: Oxford University Press
File size: 340 MB
File type: Nero Image

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XTerm Medical Dictionary

What is XTerm Medical Dictionary?
source: http://www.medical-dictionary.ro/index.html

This medical dictionary is a private project that endeavors to offer high quality and free of any charge medical information to whose individuals involved in learning and practicing human medicine.

XTerm Medical Dictionary has a filter-based service that presents a catalogue of descriptions of carefully selected health and medical Internet resources.

The information provided should not be used for diagnosis or treatment of any medical condition.

Please note that we can only provide help on XTerm Medical Dictionary-related services.

XTerm Medical Dictionary provides links to Internet resources. We do not guarantee that the information found in an Internet resource found using XTerm Medical Dictionary' site is always accurate and complete. This is because we have no control over these resources and their contents. Therefore neither XTerm Medical Dictionary or any of it's contributors are responsible for any loss, damage or expense that might be caused by any action, or lack of action, that a user of this service might take as a result of reading material on a site found using XTerm Medical Dictionary. Responsibility for such actions, or lack of actions, remains with the reader concerned.

Likewise, while XTerm Medical Dictionary endeavors to provide accurate information on all the XTerm Medical Dictionary website pages, we do not guarantee that these pages will not contain any errors, incomplete or out-of-date information. Therefore, neither XTerm Medical Dictionary or any of it's contributors are responsible for any loss, damage or expense that might be caused by any action, or lack of action, that a user of this service might take as a result of reading material on any of the XTerm Medical Dictionary web pages. Responsibility for such actions, or lack of actions, remains with the reader concerned.

CODE
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Written for public health professionals and students, the Dictionary of Public Health Education and Health Promotion, Second Edition, includes definitions for terms and concepts frequently used in public health education and promotion. The book offers both students and professionals a handy resource and contains a wide range of health education¾related terminologies and effectively eliminates the need for wading through scores of books or articles to find a definition. The book also provides an easily used reference for those working in research or design of public health interventions and
Offers a reference list of the terms found most often in the professional literature
Includes key terms used in related public health disciplines such as epidemiology, health administration, biostatistics, environmental health, and behavioral sciences
presents terms relevant to the four settings of health promotion and education—community, workplace, primary care, and school
Provides a useful study aid when preparing for the exam to become a Certified Health Education Specialist

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Martindal 35 CD : The complete drug reference


Martindale: The complete drug reference has been a trusted source for medicines information for over 120 years. With its worldwide coverage and unbiased, reliable and evaluated information on drugs and medicines, Martindale forms the backbone of MedicinesComplete.

Encyclopaedic facts about drugs and medicines
Over 6,000 drug monographs including more than 200 herbal medicines
124,000 preparations
32,000 references
12,000 manufacturers
Synopses of treatments for more than 660 diseases
Covers not only drugs and medicines used throughout the world but also herbal and complementary medicines, veterinary drugs, contrast media, diagnostic agents, radiopharmaceuticals, pharmaceutical excipients, poisons, essential oils, and many more
Martindale combines sections of evaluated text summarising relevant information for both licensed and unlicensed uses with referenced abstracts or reviews that expand upon the details given in the text or add additional information, if appropriate. The Martindale editorial team uses extensive literature surveillance and modern information retrieval techniques to review existing text and identify new areas of interest for inclusion. Given the increasing importance of evidence-based medicine, particular care is taken to identify, and where possible include as references, systematic reviews and ********************-analyses or evidence-based guidelines.

size: 447.45 MB

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password: omaras
canada4all
Severe Personality Disorders

Product Details
Book Publisher: Cambridge University Press (22 October, 2007)
ISBN: 0521856515
Book author: Bert van Luyn, Salman Akhtar, W. John Livesley
Amazon Rating:

Book Description:
This book is about understanding and managing patients with severe personality disorders. It covers biological, psychoanalytic and cognitive-behavioural approaches and provides a pragmatic guide to best practice, based on the published evidence, where this is available. As well as discussing issues of severity, treatability and the range of appropriate management options, the content explores the common elements of effective interventions and covers early prediction, countertransference, disruptions of the therapeutic alliance, suicidal crises and what to do when dealing with dangerous, refractory and stalking patients. The chapters are authored by an international cast of distinguished investigators and innovators from the field. This is a holistic, practical guide to the treatment of patients with the range of these disorders and it should be read by all the members of the mental health team dealing with this challenging clinical group.
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canada4all
Medical Books Collection 15 CD'S


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http://rapidshare.com/files/44930165/Auerbach_20-_20Wilderness_20Medicine_204th_20ed_20-_20No_20Images.rar
http://rapidshare.com/files/44930229/Ferri_20-_20Practical_20Guide_20to_20the_20Care_20of_20the_20Medical_20Patient_205.rar
http://rapidshare.com/files/44930085/Ballantyne_20-_20The_20Massachusetts_20General_20Hospital_20Handbook_20of_20.pdb
http://rapidshare.com/files/44930073/Park_20-_20Pediatric_20Cardiology_20for_20Practitioners_204th_20ed_20-_20No_20Im.rar
http://rapidshare.com/files/44930068/The_20Review_20of_20Natural_20Products_202004.pdb
http://rapidshare.com/files/44930097/Stenchever_20-_20Comprehensive_20Gynecology_204th_20ed_20-_20No_20Images.rar
http://rapidshare.com/files/44930030/Gitlow_20-_20Substance_20Use_20Disorders_20A_20Practical_20Guide_201st_20ed.pdb
http://rapidshare.com/files/44930087/Ferri_20-_20Practical_20Guide_20to_20the_20Care_20of_20the_20Medical_20Patient_202.rar
http://rapidshare.com/files/44929541/Rosenberg_20-_20Cancer_20-_20Principles_20and_20Practice_20of_20Oncology_206th.pdb
http://rapidshare.com/files/44930100/Schwartz_20-_20Principles_20of_20Surgery__20Companion_20Handbook_207th_20ed.pdb
http://rapidshare.com/files/44930077/Jacobson_20-_20Psychiatric_20Secrets_20_The_20Secrets_20Series__202nd_20ed_20-.rar
http://rapidshare.com/files/44930213/Weinstein_20-_20Plumer_27s_20Principles_20__20Practice_20of_20Intravenous_20Th.pdb
http://rapidshare.com/files/44930214/Grainger_20-_20Grainger_20__20Allison_27s_20Diagnostic_20Radiology_20-_20A_20Tex.rar
http://rapidshare.com/files/44930117/Natural_20Standard_202004.pdb
http://rapidshare.com/files/44929551/Juhl_20-_20Paul_20and_20Juhl_27s_20Essentials_20of_20Radiologic_20Imaging_207th_20.pdb
http://rapidshare.com/files/44930090/Habif_20-_20Clinical_20Dermatology_20-_20A_20Color_20Guide_20to_20Diagnosis_20an.rar
http://rapidshare.com/files/44930045/Rhee_20-_20The_20Wills_20Eye_20Manual_20Office_20and_20Emergency_20Room_20Diagno.pdb
http://rapidshare.com/files/44930197/Janicak_20-_20Principles_20and_20Practice_20of_20Psychopharmacotherapy_203.pdb
http://rapidshare.com/files/44930150/Peitzman_20-_20The_20Trauma_20Manual_202nd_20ed.pdb
http://rapidshare.com/files/44930099/Jacobson_20-_20Psychiatric_20Secrets_20_The_20Secrets_20Series__202nd_20ed.rar
http://rapidshare.com/files/44930016/Eisenberg_20-_20What_20to_20Order_20When_20Pocket_20Guide_20to_20Diagnostic_20Im.pdb
http://rapidshare.com/files/44930224/Park_20-_20Pediatric_20Cardiology_20for_20Practitioners_204th_20ed.rar
http://rapidshare.com/files/44930091/Duker_20-_20Krugman_27s_20Infectious_20Diseases_20of_20Children_2011th_20ed_20-_20.rar
http://rapidshare.com/files/44928541/Harvey_20-_20Lung_20Cancer_20Principles_20and_20Practice_202nd_20ed.pdb
http://rapidshare.com/files/44929313/Schrier_20-_20Diseases_20of_20the_20Kidney_20and_20Urinary_20Tract_c2_a0_207th_20ed.pdb
http://rapidshare.com/files/44929187/Humes_20-_20Kelley_27s_20Textbook_20of_20Internal_20Medicine_204th_20ed.pdb
http://rapidshare.com/files/44928526/Merritt_20-_20Merritt_27s_20Neurology_2010th_20Ed.pdb
http://rapidshare.com/files/44929101/Tintinalli_20-_20Emergency_20Medicine_20A_20Comprehensive_20Study_20Guide_20.pdb
http://rapidshare.com/files/44928734/Wolfson_20-_20The_20Clinical_20Practice_20of_20Emergency_20Medicine_203rd_20ed.pdb
http://rapidshare.com/files/44928740/Josephson_20-_20Clinical_20Cardiac_20Electrophysiology_20Techniques_20an.pdb
http://rapidshare.com/files/44928832/Lovell_20-_20Lovell_20and_20Winter_27s_20Pediatric_20Orthopaedics_203rd_20ed.pdb
http://rapidshare.com/files/44928353/Braunwald_20-_20Harrison_27s_20Manual_20of_20Medicine_2015th_20ed.pdb
http://rapidshare.com/files/44928395/Wagner_20-_20Marriott_27s_20Practical_20Electrocardiography_2010th_20ed.pdb
http://rapidshare.com/files/44928459/Klaassen_20-_20Casarett_20__20Doull_27s_20Toxicology_20The_20Basic_20Science_20o.pdb
http://rapidshare.com/files/44928465/Wachter_20-_20Hospital_20Medicine.pdb
http://rapidshare.com/files/44928445/McCann_20-_20Diseases_203rd_20Ed.pdb
http://rapidshare.com/files/44928324/Chabner_20-_20Cancer_20Chemotherapy_20and_20Biotherapy_20Principles_20and_20.pdb
http://rapidshare.com/files/44928468/Menkes_20-_20Child_20Neurology_206th_20ed.pdb
http://rapidshare.com/files/44928449/Victor_20-_20Adams_20__20Victor_27s_20Principles_20Of_20Neurology_207th_20ed.pdb
http://rapidshare.com/files/44928195/Taylor_20-_20Manual_20of_20Family_20Practice_202nd_20ed.pdb
http://rapidshare.com/files/44928170/Metheny_20-_20Fluid_20and_20Electrolyte_20Balance_204th_20Ed.pdb
http://rapidshare.com/files/44928225/Daugirdas_20-_20Handbook_20of_20Dialysis_203rd_20ed.pdb
http://rapidshare.com/files/44928234/Clinical_20Evidence_20Vol_2010.pdb
http://rapidshare.com/files/44928193/Ravel_20-_20Clinical_20Laboratory_20Medicine_20-_20Clinical_20Applications.pdb
canada4all
Atlas of Endometriosis, Third Edition (ENCYCLOPEDIA OF VISUAL MEDICINE SERIES)
Publisher: Informa Healthcare | 2000-05-15 | 416 pages | ISBN: 0415395739 | 11 MB | PDF

Endometriosis remains an enigma despite the many years elapsing since its description by Samson. It continues to defy research aimed at uncovering its etiology and the corresponding rational management that would result. Equally perplexing is the fact that afflicted women do not suffer the same symptoms and in fact some are completely asymptomatic. Research into the genomic characterisation of endometriosis may hold the greatest promise yet, and perhaps
variable expression may explain the variable affects of the disease. But even this approach will see many false leads before the etiology is finally elucidated.

CODE
http://hotfile.com/dl/5258408/1239846/Atlas_of_Endometriosis.rar.html
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Pocket Atlas of Human Anatomy: Based on the International Nomenclature”Heinz Feneis, Wolfgang, M.D. Dauber, “
Thieme Medical Publishers | 2000 | ISBN: 0865779287 | 500 pages | PDF | 10,8 MB

This globally recognized pocket atlas can be used as a comprehensive illustrated dictionary of anatomical structures with standardized Latin and English terminology. At the same time it is an excellent atlas of anatomy in its own right, with illustrations by a prize-winning medical artist.
Packed with time-saving, succinct information, it is a must for all students and practitioners of the medical sciences. This new edition contains the most recent update of the "Nomina anatomica" by the Committee on International Nomenclature.
CODE
http://rapidshare.com/files/197699305/Pocket_Atlas_of_Hum_Anatomy.rar
canada4all
Atlas of Oral Implantology (book of the week)
CODE
http://rapidshare.com/files/167758425/Color_Atlas_Of_Oral_Implantology.part1.rar
http://rapidshare.com/files/167769811/Color_Atlas_Of_Oral_Implantology.part2.rar
http://rapidshare.com/files/167780424/Color_Atlas_Of_Oral_Implantology.part3.rar
http://rapidshare.com/files/167557123/Color_Atlas_Of_Oral_Implantology.part4.rar
http://rapidshare.com/files/167572870/Color_Atlas_Of_Oral_Implantology.part5.rar
http://rapidshare.com/files/167612000/Color_Atlas_Of_Oral_Implantology.part6.rar
http://rapidshare.com/files/167624763/Color_Atlas_Of_Oral_Implantology.part7.rar
canada4all
Practical Advanced Periodontal Surgery (book of the week)
CODE
http://rapidshare.com/files/168773915/Practical_Advanced_Periodontal_Surgery.rar
canada4all
Implant Restorations: A Step-by-Step Guide - 2nd Edition by: Carl Drago (book of the week)
CODE
http://ifile.it/po07ni1/081382883x.rar
canada4all
Atlas of Cosmetic and Reconstructive Periodontal Surgery 3/E (book of the week)
CODE
http://www.filefactory.com/file/82fa64/n/0534_CohenPlSur_rar
canada4all
Matrix Metalloproteinases in Tissue Remodelling and Inflammation (from Dr. Yener Ozzo)
Dear colleague,
In this book, it is aimed to take a closer look to the MMPs in various systemic inflammatory diseases. It also provides information about the theraputic strategies selectively or nonselectively targeting MMPs.
It might be a reference textbook for researchers who are interested in MMPs.
CODE
tp://rs528.rapidshare.com/files/162454772/MatriMetallTisRemoNInf.rar
canada4all
Going to the Dentist (First Steps) (Board book)
CODE
http://ifile.it/xl8s2qj/0756631025.zip
canada4all
The Teeth And Their Environment: Physical, Chemical And Biomedical Influences (Monographs in Oral Science)
CODE
http://ifile.it/ct32bwa/3805579683.zip
canada4all
RDH Magazine ~ Volume: 2009 Issue: 1 January 2009 (Dentistry)
CODE
http://rapidshare.com/files/187738558/RDH_20090101_Jan_2009.rar
canada4all
Smile Dental Journal, Volume 3, Issue 4
The link to download the e-copy of Smile Dental Journal, Volume 3, Issue 4 (December 2008) is:

CODE
http://rapidshare.com/files/188826693/Smile__Volume_3__Issue_4.pdf


Topics covered in this issue are:

1- Immediate Loading of Implants Placed Into Fresh Extraction Sockets with Peri-Apical Lesions without Augmentation
Prof. Tarek Mahmoud Aly & Dr. Sarah Mohamed Arafat

2- Clinical Evaluation of Bleaching Agents of Different Concentrations
Dr. Hakam Al-Musa

3- Ectopic Supernumerary Nasal Tooth: A Clinical Case Report
Dr. Khaled Mansour

4- Tips for Endodontic Radiography
Dr. Mohammad Hammo
canada4all
200 dental powerpoints (50 periodontal topics)


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http://rapidshare.com/users/U29M8K
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MULTIPLE DENTISTRY
200 dental powerpoints (50 periodontal topics)
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Jyoti Rastogi's Contribution of link to loads of PPTs
Thank You Jyothi for your kind contribution! and salute to the people who originally uploaded the PPTs!


CODE
http://rapidshare.com/users/U29M8K


from Dental E books
Thanx for all your encouragements !

Improving Oral Health for the Elderly: An Interdisciplinary Approach by: J.C. Takamura, Ira B. Lamster, Mary E. Northridge
Two important oral health policy concerns in the United States are disparities in the oral disease burden and the inability of certain segments of the population to access oral health care. Both of these challenges are largely due to socioeconomic stratification in US society. As a consequence of the release of the surgeon generala ™s report on oral health, there has been a call to action to improve the oral health of underprivileged groups who have difficulty accessing dental services. But in contrast to the extensive national attention focused on childrena ™s oral health in recent years, Americaa ™s growing elderly population has received relatively little attention and almost no public health or public policy interventions. Population projections for the United States indicate that the elderly will constitute an increasing percentage of the population. In 2001, the population of the United States was almost 278 million, and 12.6% of the population was 65 years of age or older. By 2015, the population is expected to increase to 312 million, and 14.7% of the population will be aged 65 years or older. In 2030, which is within the practice lives of students currently enrolled in dental schools, the population will have increased to more than 350 million, and 20% of the populationa "1 of every 5 members of US societya "will be 65 years of age or older. Further, the elderly population will become increasingly diverse in terms of race/ethnicity, financial resources, and living conditions. There are several compelling reasons for this book. First, oral health is the clearest physical marker of socioeconomic disadvantage in the United States, given longstanding policies oneverything from reimbursement for services to who can perform what procedures. Second, the aging population will require a host of new approaches to service delivery, and oral health is often left out of deliberations. Third, oral health for older adults is an area of health disparities research and practice that remains to be meaningfully addressed. And finally, broad based approaches to population health and well-being argue for a comprehensive understanding of etiology and burden of illness across the life course. It is in later life that the compilation of preventive as well as risk factors are most evident in our mouths.

LINK:
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http://ifile.it/e17n0zy/0387743367.zip

periodontology group powerpoint 3
periodontology group powerpoint 3

1. Development of the Periodontium.ppt
CODE
http://ifile.it/cjtl1db

2. Dental_Implants__perio_.ppt
CODE
http://ifile.it/0yjma6n

3. defence_mechanism_of_gingiva__perio_.ppt
CODE
http://ifile.it/9zsmeha




Posted by PERIODONTOLOGY FACEBOOK GROUP at 8:25 PM 1 comments

The link to download the e-copy of Smile Dental Journal, Volume 3, Issue 4 (December 2008) is:

CODE
http://rapidshare.com/files/188826693/Smile__Volume_3__Issue_4.pdf


Topics covered in this issue are:

1- Immediate Loading of Implants Placed Into Fresh Extraction Sockets with Peri-Apical Lesions without Augmentation
Prof. Tarek Mahmoud Aly & Dr. Sarah Mohamed Arafat

2- Clinical Evaluation of Bleaching Agents of Different Concentrations
Dr. Hakam Al-Musa

3- Ectopic Supernumerary Nasal Tooth: A Clinical Case Report
Dr. Khaled Mansour

4- Tips for Endodontic Radiography


RDH Magazine ~ Volume: 2009 Issue: 1 January 2009 (Dentistry)
CODE
http://rapidshare.com/files/187738558/RDH_20090101_Jan_2009.rar


The Teeth And Their Environment: Physical, Chemical And Biomedical Influences (Monographs in Oral Science)
CODE
http://ifile.it/ct32bwa/3805579683.zip


Going to the Dentist (First Steps) (Board book)
CODE
http://ifile.it/xl8s2qj/0756631025.zip


Sedation and Analgesia for Diagnostic and Therapeutic Procedures (
Sedation and Analgesia for Diagnostic and Therapeutic Procedures


INDEX

1 Opioids, Sedation, and Sleep

2 Practice Guidelines for Pediatric Sedation

3 Practice Guidelines for Adult Sedation and Analgesia

4 Procedure and Site-Specific Considerations for Pediatric Sedation

5 Adult Sedation by Site and Procedure

6 Pharmacology of Sedative Agents

7 Opioids in the Management of Acute Pediatric Pain

8 Patient Monitoring During Sedation

9 Assessment of Sedation Depth

10 Nursing Perspectives on the Care of Sedated Patients

11 Recovery and Transport of Sedated Patients

12 Quality Assurance and Continuous Quality Improvement
in Sedation Analgesia

CODE
http://mihd.net/do8c5u

Matrix Metalloproteinases in Tissue Remodelling and Inflammation (from Dr. Yener Ozzo)
Dear colleague,
In this book, it is aimed to take a closer look to the MMPs in various systemic inflammatory diseases. It also provides information about the theraputic strategies selectively or nonselectively targeting MMPs.


LINK:
CODE
http://rs528.rapidshare.com/files/162454772/MatriMetallTisRemoNInf.rar


Atlas of Cosmetic and Reconstructive Periodontal Surgery 3/E (book of the week)
CODE
http://www.filefactory.com/file/82fa64/n/0534_CohenPlSur_rar


CODE
Implant Restorations: A Step-by-Step Guide - 2nd Edition by: Carl Drago (book of the week)
http://ifile.it/po07ni1/081382883x.rar
canada4all
616 medical books trail shit
CODE
http://www.giuciao.com/books/sorted.php?by=Medicine&ord=id

canada4all
MULTIPLE #2 POST
DENTISTRY
CODE
Practical Advanced Periodontal Surgery (book of the week)
http://rapidshare.com/files/168773915/Practical_Advanced_Periodontal_Surgery.rar


Atlas of Oral Implantology (book of the week)
CODE
http://rapidshare.com/files/167758425/Color_Atlas_Of_Oral_Implantology.part1.rar
http://rapidshare.com/files/167769811/Color_Atlas_Of_Oral_Implantology.part2.rar
http://rapidshare.com/files/167780424/Color_Atlas_Of_Oral_Implantology.part3.rar
http://rapidshare.com/files/167557123/Color_Atlas_Of_Oral_Implantology.part4.rar
http://rapidshare.com/files/167572870/Color_Atlas_Of_Oral_Implantology.part5.rar
http://rapidshare.com/files/167612000/Color_Atlas_Of_Oral_Implantology.part6.rar
http://rapidshare.com/files/167624763/Color_Atlas_Of_Oral_Implantology.part7.rar


Book on Periodontal Medicine
CODE
http://rapidshare.com/files/110926407/B.C.DECKER.Periodontal.Medicine.ebook-TLFeBOOK.pdf


Book on Critical Decisions in Periodontology
CODE
http://rapidshare.com/files/63385563/Critical_Decision_in_Periodontology.rar


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Dental Clinics of North America ! Periodontal Version!
http://rapidshare.com/files/108183088/Dental_Clinics_of_North_America.pdf



Periodontal Surgery: A Clinical Atlas
CODE
http://rapidshare.com/files/43873015/periodontal_surgery.pdf


Restorative dental materials(from Dr.Rashed Salah)
CODE
http://rapidshare.com/files/157826995/Restorative_dental_materials_2002.pdf


Book of the week
Book of the week
clinical problem solving in dentistry
CODE
http://rapidshare.com/files/151263935/clinical_problem_solving_in_dentistry.pdf



A great powerpoint on Diabetes and Periodontitis
A great powerpoint on Diabetes and Periodontitis!
Reviews comprehensively every part of diabetes:
1.History and Sign and Symptoms
2. Relation with periodontitis
3.Diabetic emergency on dental chair
4.Management of diabetic patients
5. Diabetics and Implants
About 40 Mb with so much detail on it!
Personally assessed by us and highly recommended for all!
Must download for all Dentists !
CODE
http://rapidshare.com/files/159399274/Diabetes_Mellitus_and_Periodontitis.ppt


Powerpoint on Bone morphogenetic protein

Powerpoint on Bone morphogenetic protein ! Contribution by Dr. Jai Ganesh!


CODE
http://rapidshare.com/files/158082108/BMP_seminar.ppt


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Implant Restorations A Step-by-Step Guide 2nd_Edition
http://rapidshare.com/files/140669752/Implant_Restorations_A_Step-by-Step_Guide__2nd_Edition_.rar


Atlas of Cosmetic and Reconstructive Periodontal Surgery
Atlas of Cosmetic and Reconstructive Periodontal Surgery
CODE
http://health.groups.yahoo.com/group/medkitap/message/929


PERIODONTOLOGY GROUP WALLPAPER
Our group wallpaper
CODE
http://rapidshare.com/files/155338019/periodontology_wallpaper_for_wind_xp.rar.html

8
Dental Implant Prosthetic Misch 2005
CODE
http://rapidshare.de/filMohamed Foudaes/39646715/DENTAL_IMPLANT_PROSTHETIC_Misch2005.rar
.

616 medical books
CODE
http://www.giuciao.com/books/sorted.php?by=Medicine&ord=id


Microbiology book
Very nice book for all undergraduates and Post graduates in their Part I exams!Also a must have book for all Periodontists!It comprehensively reviews all microbes exclusively playing a part in oral and maxillofacial lesions! The author is definitely a genius!
CODE
http://rapidshare.com/files/143460920/Essential_Microbiology_for_Dentistry_-_Samaranayake_-_2006.pdf


CODE
http://rapidshare.com/users/U29M8K


Dental Clinics of North America ! Periodontal Version!
Dental Clinics of North America ! Periodontal Version!

CODE
http://rapidshare.com/files/108183088/Dental_Clinics_of_North_America.pdf | 4275 KB


IONIC TOOTH BRUSH AND ITS MECHANISM OF ACTION
Everybody knows regular brushing is the first step to healthy teeth and gums. Frequent brushing removes residue from tooth surfaces and prevents decay, but in the areas of the mouth where regular bristles won’t reach, plaque deposits can build up putting you at risk for tooth decay and gum disease.

Fortunately, there is an effective weapon against plaque that will protect your teeth and gums between visits to the dentist. Brushing with the Ionic Toothbrush actually helps teeth repel plaque, even in hard-to-reach cracks and crevices between teeth.

The Ionic toothbrush works on the principle that every element in nature has a positive or negative charge. This is called polarity. When the polarities are opposite, the two elements cling together. That’s why dust sticks to your coffee table and why plaque, which has a positive charge (+), clings stubbornly to your negatively charged (-) teeth. The Ionic Action toothbrush temporarily reverses polarity of the tooth surface from negative (-) to positive (+), drawing plaque towards the negatively charged Ionic Toothbrush head.

When you brush with Ionic Toothbrush, a constant flow of positive ions (+) from the lithium power source temporarily reverses your teeth’s polarity. This makes your teeth reject plaque, even in areas that aren’t touched by Ionic Toothbrush bristles. The Ionic Toothbrush handle is only slightly larger in size than a manual toothbrush, and has been specially designed with a small brush head to reach hard-to-clean areas of teeth. The toothbrush handle contains the power source responsible for the ionization.

When the Ionic Toothbrush is held in your hand and the bristles of the brush head touch your teeth in the presence of saliva or water, an imperceptible electronic circuit is created. The power source for the circuit is encased in the handle section, and covered with a metal pad. When brushing, the user must simply keep a finger or part of the palm in contact with the pad, perferably wet, and brush as usual. The electron flow attracts plaque to the negative bristles for removal. This process is safe, simple and effective.



A basic continuing education compendium in dentistry!
A basic continuing education compendium in dentistry! Issue on Periodontics! Contribution by Kelvin! Thanx Kelvin!
A very good pdf of 60 pages!
Makes u understand what is going on in Periodontics!
Must download for all dentists!
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http://rapidshare.com/files/114107743/gin_compendium.pdf
canada4all
Cancer of the Head and Neck (Acs Atlas of Clinical Oncology)
Published by e-man | Filed under Medicine


Cancer of the Head and Neck (Acs Atlas of Clinical Oncology)
Publisher:BC Decker Inc. | Pages:484 | 2001-10-01 | ISBN:1550090844 | PDF | 31 MB


Dr. Jatin P. Shah has brought together contributing authors in a single volume that represents the head and neck management team at Memorial Sloan-Kettering Cancer Center. The strength of the volume is in it’s internal consistency of diagnostic approaches, therapeutic decisions, multidisciplinary treatment programs, and surgical techniques. An effort has also been made to be comprehensive and to give a balanced view to other treatment approaches. This book follows the ACS and American Head and Neck Society guidelines, focusing primarily on outcome analysis and implementation of evidence based medicine. These have proved excellent guidelines for the practitioner in the community and are rapidly becoming standards of care. Essential to the diagnosis and treatment of the disease is the involvement of a multidisciplinary management team of medical experts. Such disease management teams develop treatment algorithms and establish treatment guidelines to unify an approach to maintain internal consistency, initiate investigative protocols, and push the frontiers in the battle against cancer.


CODE
http://www.megaupload.com/?d=C1HV8X2E

OR
http://rapidshare.com/files/89545823/Cancer_of_the_Head_and_Neck__Acs_Atlas_of_Clinical_Oncology_.rar
canada4all
Color Atlas Of Forensic Pathology
Book cover for Color Atlas Of Forensic Pathology
Language: English
Category: Technology
Tag: Science/Engineering





"Color Atlas Of Forensic Pathology"
Publisher:CRC | Pages:192 | 1999-12-21 | ISBN:0849302781 | PDF | 29.8 MB
This extensive atlas addresses much of the basic information which forensic pathologists and other investigators deal with on a day to day basis. Packed with 800 full-color, captioned photographs, it examines everything from time of death and decomposition, to identification, blunt trauma, sudden natural death, firearm injuries, asphyxia, cutting and stabbing injuries, and more. The atlas shows different causes of death and injury with case examples for investigators who can use 'visuals' to understand the work they perform.
A male homicide victim with a shotgun blast to the chest. A female drug addict who has overdosed on crack cocaine. An elderly woman with deep stab wounds to the neck. A two-year-old motor vehicle accident victim with blunt head trauma. For forensic pathologists, police detectives, and crime scene investigators, dealing with death and injury is a daily routine. But even after investigating thousands of drownings, shootings, stabbings, electrocutions, overdoses, and traffic accidents, most professionals in the investigative fields still haven't seen it all. Originally published on CD-ROM, the Color Atlas of Forensic Pathology addresses much of the basic information which forensic pathologists and other investigators deal with on a day to day basis. Packed with 780 full-color, captioned photographs, this atlas examines everything from time of death and decomposition, to identification, to causes of death from blunt trauma, firearm injuries, asphyxia, cutting and stabbing injuries, and more. The atlas shows the various causes of death and injury with case -- "visuals" to help investigators understand the work they perform. Indeed, with its exhaustive coverage, the Color Atlas of Forensic Pathology will provide investigators with valuable insight into the many different causes of death and injury they must deal with and how the manners of death are
CODE
diagnosed.
http://www.megaupload.com/?d=E8N11XJ9

OR
http://rapidshare.com/files/54601676/Color_Atlas_of_Forensic_Pathology.part1.rar
http://rapidshare.com/files/54606447/Color_Atlas_of_Forensic_Pathology.part2.rar
NO MIRRORS PLEASE...


RS Link in one working part:
http://rapidshare.com/files/54989741/Color_Atlas_of_Forensic_Pathology.rar
canada4all
Head and Neck Cancer Imaging, by Robert Hermans, A.L. Baert
Springer; 1 edition | English | March 22, 2006 | ISBN: 3540220275 | 368 Pages | PDF | 14,7 Mb

Description : This book provides a comprehensive review of state-of-the-art imaging in head and neck cancer. Precise determination of tumor extent is of the utmost importance in these neoplasms, as it has important consequences for staging of disease, prediction of outcome and choice of treatment. Only the radiologist can fully appreciate submucosal, perineural, and perivascular tumor spread and detect metastatic disease at an early stage. Imaging is also of considerable benefit for patient surveillance after treatment. All imaging modalities currently used in the management of head and neck neoplasms are considered in depth, and in addition newer techniques such as PET-CT and diffusion-weighted MRI are discussed. This book will help the reader to recommend, execute and report head and neck imaging studies at a high level of sophistication and thereby to become a respected member of the team managing head and neck cancer.

CODE
http://depositfiles.com/en/files/ttuh2tx54
canada4all
Laparoscopic Surgery of the Abdomen, by Bruce V. MacFadyen, Maurice E. Arregui
Springer; 1 edition | English | October 17, 2003 | ISBN: 0387984682 | 556 Pages | PDF | 37,5 Mb

Description : Laparoscopic Surgery of the Abdomen is intended to give the practicing surgeon or trainee an in-depth analysis of the technical aspects of the most commonly performed laparoscopic procedures, their indications, contraindications, and complications. Included are strategies to prevent complications as well as ways to handle them once they occur. Heavily illustrated, the book breaks new ground in visualizing operative procedures and problems. Seven sections, comprising the core curriculum of accepted procedures in laparoscopic surgery, present gallbladder disease, common bile duct exploration, hernia, colon diseases, anti-reflux procedures, acute abdomen and the role of diagnostic laparoscopy, and emerging procedures on the spleen and adrenals. Recognized leaders in the field tackle each section, emphasizing what to do when and how to solve acute situations. Laparoscopic Surgery of the Abdomen is a practical, must-have resource for the general surgeon, imparting the clinical insight needed for successful performance of the core miminally invasive procedures.

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Medical BioMethods Handbook, by John M. Walker, Ralph Rapley
Humana Press; 1 edition | English | March 18, 2005 | ISBN: 1588293343 | 632 Pages | PDF | 14,1 Mb

Description : John Walker and Ralph Rapley have collected a wide-ranging group of molecular and biochemical techniques that are the most frequently used in medical and clinical research, especially diagnostics. The authors-well-established investigators who run their own research programs and use the methods on a regular basis-outline the practical procedures for using them and describe a variety of pertinent applications. Among the technologies presented are southern and western blotting, electrophoresis, PCR, cDNA and protein microarrays, liquid chromatography, in situ hybridization, karyotyping, flow cytometry, bioinformatics, genomics, and ribotyping. The applications include assays for mutation detection, mRNA analysis, chromosome translocations, inborn errors of metabolism, protein therapeutics, and gene therapy.

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Translational Control of Gene Expression (2nd Edition), by Nahum Sonberg
Cold Spring Harbor Laboratory Press; 2nd edition | English | October 11, 2001 | ISBN: 0879696184 | 1015 Pages | PDF | 7,16 Mb

Description : Since the 1996 publication of Translational Control, there has been fresh interest in protein synthesis and recognition of the key role of translational control mechanisms in regulating gene expression. This new monograph updates and expands the scope of the earlier book but it also takes a fresh look at the field. In a new format, the first eight chapters provide broad overviews, while each of the additional twenty-eight has a focus on a research topic of more specific interest. The result is a thoroughly up-to-date account of initiation, elongation, and termination of translation, control mechanisms in development in response to extracellular stimuli, and the effects on the translational machinery of virus infection and disease. This book is essential reading for students entering the field and an invaluable resource for investigators of gene expression and its control.

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Awaken.Healing.Energy
Campbells.Textbook.Part1
Campbells.Textbook.Part2
Campbells.Textbook.Part3
Handbook.Of.Couples.Therapy
Healing.Or.Stealing..Medical.Charlatans.In.The.New.Age
Medicine.A.Handbook.For.Medical.Teachers
Medicine.A.Manual.Of.Laboratory.And.Diagnostic.Tests.7Th.Ed.Fischbach
Medicine.Cellulite.Pathophysiology.And.Treatment
Medicine.Clinical.evidence.vol.10
Medicine.Clinical.evidence.vol.9
Medicine.Clinical.Interviewing
Medicine.Clinical.Knowledge.Management.Opportunities.And.Challenges
Medicine.Clinicians.Pocket.Reference.0838515525
Medicine.Color.Atlas.Of.Pharmacology
Medicine.Common.Symptom.Answer.Guide
Medicine.Comprehensive.Management.Of.Chronic.Obstructive.Pulmonary.Disease.2002.
Copd
Medicine.Current.Medical.Diagnosis..Treatment.2005.Full.Pic
Medicine.Drawing.The.Line..Art.Therapy.With.The.Difficult.Client
Medicine.Elseviers.Medical.Terminology.For.The.Practicing.Nurse.1998
Medicine.Encyclopedia.Of.Infectious.Diseases
Medicine.Essentials.Of.Complementary.And.Alternative.Medicine
Medicine.Evidence-Based.Imaging.Optimizing.Imaging.In.Patient.Care
Medicine.Evidence-Based.Medicine.Workbook
Medicine.Evidence.base.of.clinical.diagnosis
Medicine.Evidence.Based.Practice.In.Primary.Care.Illustrated
Medicine.Ferris.Clinical.Advisor.2004.Instant.Diagnosis.And.Treatment..6Th.Editi
on
Medicine.General.Practice.3Rd.Edition.J..Murtagh
Medicine.Geriatric.Medicine.An.Evidence-Based.Approach
Medicine.Harrisons.Principles.Of.Internal.Medicine.16Th.Edition
Medicine.How.To.Present.At.Meetings.2001
Medicine.How.To.Read.A.Paper
Medicine.How.To.Write..Publish.Scientific.Paper
Medicine.Information.Technologies.In.Medicine.Volume.I
Medicine.Interviewing.And.Diagnostic.Exercises.For.Clinical.And.Counseling.Skill
s.Building.Isbn.08058464
Medicine.Learning.medicine.an.informal.guide.to.a.career.in.medicine
Medicine.Manual.Of.Clinical.Problems.In.Pediatrics.5Th.Edition.2000
Medicine.Manual.Of.Family.Practice.2Nd.Ed
Medicine.Means.Ends.And.Medical.Care
Medicine.Medical.And.Psychosocial.Aspects.Of.Chronic.Illness.And.Disability.Thir
d.Edition.2005
Medicine.Medical.Malpractice.A.Physicians.Sourcebook
Medicine.Modern.Pharmacology.With.Clinical.Applications
Medicine.Nelson.Textbook.Of.Pediatrics.17Th.Ed.Behrman
Medicine.Opportunities.In.Physician.Careers.0071438483
Medicine.Outpatient.And.Primary.Care.Medicine.2005.Edition.2004
Medicine.Oxford.dictionary.of.medical.quotations
Medicine.Oxford.textbook.of.public.health.4th.ed
Medicine.Paediatric.Musculoskeletal.Disease.3Haxap
Medicine.Paediatric.Radiography.3Haxap
Medicine.Pain.Medicine.And.Management.Just.The.Facts
Medicine.Primary.care.medicine.office.evaluation.and.managem
Medicine.Rosens.Emergency.Medicine.Part1
Medicine.Rosens.Emergency.Medicine.Part2
Medicine.Scientific.Writing.Easy.When.You.Know.How.2002
Medicine.Symptoms.Of.Unknown.Origin
Medicine.Textbook.Of.Clinical.Trials.Wiley.2004
Medicine.Textbook.Of.Physical.Diagnosis.History.Examination.Swartz
Medicine.The.Gale.Encyclopedia.Of.Alternative.Medicine.4-Volume-Set-Pdf.Part1
Medicine.The.Gale.Encyclopedia.Of.Alternative.Medicine.4-Volume-Set-Pdf.Part2
Medicine.The.Gale.Encyclopedia.Of.Cancer.2-Volume-Set
Medicine.The.Gale.Encyclopedia.Of.Genetic.Disorders.2-Volume-Set.Pdf
Medicine.The.Gale.Encyclopedia.Of.Medicine.5-Volume-Set.2Nd.Edition
Medicine.The.Gale.Encyclopedia.Of.Nursing.And.Allied.Health
Medicine.The.Gale.Encyclopedia.Of.Science.3Rd.Edition.6-Volume-Set-Pdf.Part1
Medicine.The.Gale.Encyclopedia.Of.Science.3Rd.Edition.6-Volume-Set-Pdf.Part2
Medicine.Understanding.Headaches.And.Migranes
Neurology.A.Dictionary.Of.Neurological.Signs
Neurology.Abc.Of.Spinal.Cord.Injury
Neurology.Atlas.Of.Functional.Neuroanatomy.Second.Edition
Neurology.Atlas.Of.Neuromuscular.Diseases
Neurology.Brain.Facts.A.Primer.On.The.Brain.And.Nervous.System.The.Society.For.N
euroscience
Neurology.Cerebral.palsy
Neurology.Complementary.Therapies.In.Neurology
Neurology.Cranial.Nerves.Functional.Anatomy.2005
Neurology.Differential.Diagnosis.In.Neurology.And.Neurosurgery
Neurology.Electrodiagnosis.In.Diseases.Of.Nerve.And.Muscle.Principles.And.Practi
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Neurology.Functional.Neuroanatomy.Of.Pain
Neurology.Handbook.Of.Parkinsons.Disease.Third.Edition
Neurology.Living.Well.With.Parkinsons
Neurology.Managing.The.Symptoms.Of.Multiple.Sclerosis
Neurology.Managing.Your.Multiple.Sclerosis
Neurology.Merritt.Merritts.Neurology.10Th.Ed
Neurology.Modern.Neurosurgery..Clinical.Translation.Of.Neuroscience.Advances
Neurology.Motor.Cortex.In.Voluntary.Movements.A.Distributed.System.For.Distribut
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Neurology.Neural.Plasticity.In.Adult.Somatic.Sensory-Motor.System
Neurology.Neuroanatomy.Atlas.Of.Structures.Sections.Systems.6Ed
Neurology.Neuroscience.D.Purves.Et.Al
Neurology.Neurotransmitters.Drugs.And.Brain.Function.Wiley.2001
Neurology.Pain.And.Depression.An.Interdisciplinary.Patient-Centered.Approach
Neurology.The.Gale.Encyclopedia.Of.Neurological.Disorders..2-Volume-Set.Pdf
Neurology.The.Handbook.Of.Brain.Theory.And.Neural.Networks.Isbn.0262511029
Neurology.Treatment.Of.Pediatric.Neurologic.Disorders.3Haxap
Nursing.Practice.In.Multiple.Sclerosis.A.Core.Curriculum
Occupational.Health.Practice.Arnold.Publishers.Fourth.Editionisbn0750627204
Ortho.7.Steps.To.A.Pain.Free.Life
Ortho.Acl.Made.Simple
Ortho.An.Atlas.Of.Back.Pain
Ortho.Ankylosing.Spondylitis
Ortho.Anterior.Knee.Pain.And.Patellar.Instability
Ortho.Arthritis.And.Allied.Conditions.A.Textbook.Of.Rheu
Ortho.Atlas.Of.Skeletal.Muscles.2000.Stone
Ortho.Biomaterialsinorthopedicsdekker2004
Ortho.Biomechanical.Systems.Techniques.And.Applications.Musculoskeletal.Models..
Techniques
Ortho.Bone.And.Joint.Futures.2002
Ortho.Bonica.s.management.of.pain.3rd.ed
Ortho.Chapmans.Orthopaedic.Surgery.3Rd.Ed.Part1
Ortho.Chapmans.Orthopaedic.Surgery.3Rd.Ed.Part2
Ortho.Classifications.And.Scores.Of.The.Shoulder.Habermeyer
Ortho.Clinical.Examination.Of.Musculoskeletal.System.Assessing.Rheumatic.Conditi
ons
Ortho.Clinical.Orthopaedic.Examination.Fifth.Edition.2004
Ortho.Clinical.Tests.For.The.Musculoskeletal.System
Ortho.Core.Topics.In.Pain
Ortho.Current.Diagnosis..Treatment.In.Orthopedics.3Rd.Ed
Ortho.Delee.And.Drezs.Orthopaedic.Sports.Medicine..Editor.Delee.2Nd.Ed..2003
Ortho.Dynamics.of.human.gait
Ortho.Essentials.of.physical.medicine.and.rehabilitatio
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rmy
Ortho.Evidence.Based.Sports.Medicine
Ortho.Exercise.Leadership.In.Cardiac.Rehabilitation.An.Evidence-Based.Approach.0470019719
Ortho.Foundations.Of.Sport-Related.Brain.Injuries
Ortho.Fractures.classification.in.clinical.practice..2006.
Ortho.Fractures.in.children.5ed
Ortho.Hand.Bone.Age
Ortho.Healing.back.pain.the.mind
Ortho.Human.Body.Dynamics.Classical.Mechanics.And.Human.Movement.A.Tozeren
Ortho.Kelleys.Textbook.Of.Rheumatology.6Th.Edition.2-Volume.Set.Isbn.Part1
Ortho.Kelleys.Textbook.Of.Rheumatology.6Th.Edition.2-Volume.Set.Isbn.Part2
Ortho.Kelleys.Textbook.Of.Rheumatology.6Th.Edition.2-Volume.Set.Isbn.Part3
Ortho.Manual.Of.Rheumatology.And.Outpatient.Orthopedic.Disorders.Diagnosis.And.T
herapy.4Th.Ed
Ortho.Massage.For.Dummies
Ortho.Millers.review.of.orthopedics.Part1
Ortho.Millers.review.of.orthopedics.Part2
Ortho.Modern.Neuromuscular.Techniques.Modern.Neuromuscular.Techniques.Wcd.2003.P
art1
Ortho.Modern.Neuromuscular.Techniques.Modern.Neuromuscular.Techniques.Wcd.2003.P
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Ortho.Modern.Neuromuscular.Techniques.Modern.Neuromuscular.Techniques.Wcd.2003.P
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Ortho.Oxford.Textbook.Of.Rheumatology.2Nd.Ed.1998
Ortho.Pain.Psychological.Perspectives.Ebook-Ddu
Ortho.Pediatric.Orthopedics.For.Primary.Care.Physicians
Ortho.Pediatric.Orthopedics.In.Practice
Ortho.Physical.Medicine.And.Rehabilitation.Board.Review
Ortho.Pocket.Guide.To.Musculoskeletal.Diagnosis.3Haxap
Ortho.Screening.Notes.Rehabilitation.Specialists.Pocket.Guide.Davis.Notes.S.Isbn
0803615736
Ortho.Sports.Medicine.Just.The.Facts
Ortho.Stretching.Anderson.Bob
Ortho.Super.Joints.Russian.Longevity.Secrets.For.Pain-Free.Movement
Physiology.Biology.4.Volume.Set...Macmillan.Science.Librar.htmly
Physiology.Clinical.Anatomy.11Ed.1405138041.Oct.2006
Physiology.Clinical.laboratory.medicine.Clinical.applications
Physiology.Color.Atlas.Of.Physiology
Physiology.Human.Biology.0071218068
Physiology.Marks.Basic.Medical.Biochemistry.A.Clinical.Approach
Physiology.Medical.physiol.2nd.ed
Physiology.Memmlers.The.Human.Body.In.Health.And.Disease
Physiology.Mp.Van.De.Graaff.Human.Anatomy.Part2
Physiology.Pathophysiology.Of.Disease.Part2
Physiology.Quick.Reference.Dictionary.For.Massage.Therapy.And.Bodywork
Physiology.Understanding.Human.Anatomy.And.Physiology.5Th.Edition.Part2
Principles.And.Practice.Of.Burn.Surgery.3Haxap
Radiology.Churchill.Livingstone.2001.Grainger..Allisons.Diagnostic.Radiology..A.
Textbook.Of.Medical.I.Part1
Radiology.Churchill.Livingstone.2001.Grainger..Allisons.Diagnostic.Radiology..A.
Textbook.Of.Medical.I.Part2
Radiology.Churchill.Livingstone.2001.Grainger..Allisons.Diagnostic.Radiology..A.
Textbook.Of.Medical.I.Part3
Radiology.Image-Guided.Spine.Interventions
Radiology.Interpretation.Of.Diagnostic.Tests.7Th.Ed
Radiology.Lab.Notes.Guide.To.Lab.And.Diagnostic.Tests.2005
Radiology.Lovell.and.winter.s.pediatric.orthopaedics.3rd.ed
Radiology.Mcq.Companion.To.Applied.Radiological.Anatomy.3Haxap
Radiology.Musculoskeletal.Diseases.Diagnostic.Imaging.And.Interventional.Techniq
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Radiology.Nurses.Manual.Of.Laboratory.And.Diagnostic.Tests.4Th.Ed.2003
Radiology.Pocket.Atlas.Of.Radiographic.Anatomy.2Nd.Ed.2000
Radiology.Pocket.Guide.To.Diagnostic.Tests-0838581358
Tai.Chi.For.Seniors..How.To.Gain.Flexibility.Strength.And.Inner.Peace.
The.A-Z.Medical.Writing
The.Aging.Spine
The.Circuitry.Of.The.Human.Spinal.Cord.its.Role.In.Motor.Control.And.Movement.Di
sorders.0521825814
The.Clinical.Science.Of.Neurologic.Rehabilitation.Contemporar.htmly.Neurology.Se
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The.Healthcare.Quality.BookVision.Strategy.And.Tools
The.Massage.Connection.Anatomy.And.Physiology
The.Trigger.Point.Therapy.Workbook.Your.Self-Treatment.Guide.For.Pain.Relief.Clair.Davies.Part1
The.Trigger.Point.Therapy.Workbook.Your.Self-Treatment.Guide.For.Pain.Relief.Clair.Davies.Part2
The.Ultimate.New.York.Body.Plan.Ebook-Tlfebook
Tmj.Disorders.And.Orofacial
Toward.Replacement.Parts.For.The.Brain.Implantable.Biomimetic.Electronics.Pdf.Eb
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Trauma.E.Moore.Et.Al.5Th.Edition
Treating.Pediatric.Bed-Wetting.With.Acupuncture..Chinese.Medicine
Tyranny.Of.Health.Doctors.And.The.Regulation.Of.Lifestyle
Using.Alternative.Therapies.A.Qualitative.Analysis
Visions.Of.The.Future..Chemistry.And.Life.Science
Weight.Training.Basics
Whats.Wrong.With.Me.The.Frustrated.Patients.Guide.To.Getting.An.Accurate.Diagnos
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What.They.Didnt.Teach.You.At.Medical.School
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Who.S.Who.In.Orthopedics
World.Of.Microbiology.And.Immunology
Writing.Skills.In.Practice.Health.Professionals
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Human Anatomy & Physiology (7th Edition)
* Hardcover: 1159 pages
* Publisher: Benjamin Cummings; 7 edition (January 4, 2006)
* Language: English
* ISBN-10: 0805359095
* ISBN-13: 978-0805359091


With each edition of her top-selling Human Anatomy & Physiology text, Elaine N. Marieb draws on her own, unique experience as a full-time A&P professor and part-time nursing student to explain concepts and processes in a meaningful and memorable way. With the Seventh Edition, Dr. Marieb has teamed up with co-author Katja Hoehn to produce the most exciting edition yet, with beautifully-enhanced muscle illustrations, updated coverage of factual material and topic boxes, new coverage of high-interest topics such as Botox, designer drugs, and cancer treatment, and a comprehensive instructor and student media package. The Human Body: An Orientation, Chemistry Comes Alive, Cells: The Living Units, Tissue: The Living Fabric, The Integumentary System, Bones and Skeletal Tissues, The Skeleton, Joints, Muscles and Muscle Tissue, The Muscular System, Fundamentals of the Nervous System and Nervous Tissue, The Central Nervous System, The Peripheral Nervous System and Reflex Activity, The Autonomic Nervous System, The Special Senses, The Endocrine System, Blood, The Cardiovascular System: The Heart, The Cardiovascular System: Blood Vessels, The Lymphatic System, The Immune System: Innate and Adaptive Body Defensives, The Respiratory System, The Digestive System, Nutrition, Metabolism, and Body Temperature Regulation, The Urinary System, Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Balance, The Reproductive System, Pregnancy and Human Development, Heredity For all readers interested in human anatomy & physiology.


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Gale Encyclopedia Of Nursing And Allied Health

Gale Encyclopedia Of Nursing And Allied Health
Gale Encyclopedia Of Nursing And Allied Health

From Library Journal
Designed for students of nursing and the allied health professions, caregivers, and the educated lay reader, this five-volume set includes over 850 signed articles on various aspects of nursing. Covered here are nursing and allied healthcare education and training, current health issues (viewpoints, professional implications), tests and procedures (descriptions, precautions, aftercare), and equipment/tools (descriptions, operation, healthcare team roles), as well as diseases (causes, diagnosis, treatment) and human biology/body systems (functions, role in human health). Although there is some overlap, particularly in the last two categories with The Gale Encyclopedia of Medicine (LJ 2/15/99; 2d ed. 2001), this text focuses primarily on the interests of nurses and allied health professionals. According to the preface, the essays were contributed by physicians, nurses, and other health professionals, but Krapp (The Gale Encyclopedia of Alternative Medicine) has not always indicated their credentials. Over 400 black-and-white illustrations or photos and 50 tables enhance the material, as does an extensive list of print and nonprint resources, which includes up-to-date web addresses. The alphabetical arrangement, the shaded boxes defining key terms, and the ample cross references will be familiar to users of other Gale reference products. This work will make an excellent, albeit expensive, addition to large public libraries and graduate institutions offering appropriate programs. Margaret K. Norden, Marymount Univ. Lib., Arlington, VA
Copyright 2002 Cahners Business Information, Inc.

From Booklist
This new encyclopedia from Gale covers a wide range of subjects related to nursing and the allied health professions. The 850 signed alphabetical entries deal with diseases and disorders (Alcoholism, Movement disorders ); tests and procedures (Barium enema, Lithotripsy ); equipment and tools (Heart-lung machines, Stethoscope); human biology and body systems (Cardiovascular system, Cell division); nursing and allied health professions (Biomedical engineering, Nurse midwifery ); and current health issues (Americans with Disabilities Act, Managed care plans ).

The entries are one to six pages long. They include definitions and descriptions along with basic material related to the subject (diagnosis and treatment of diseases, maintenance of equipment, and required education for careers). Definitions of key terms appear in shaded boxes, and black-and-white illustrations augment the text. Resource lists appear at the ends of the articles. An appendix lists allied health and nursing organizations.

Although there is a great deal of useful material here, all of it is readily available in other sources that libraries may own. General medical encyclopedias such as The Gale Encyclopedia of Medicine (2d ed., Gale, 2001), the Encyclopedia of Careers and Vocational Guidance (11th ed., Ferguson, 2000), The Encyclopedia of Associations (Gale, annual), and the Lippincott Manual of Nursing Practice (7th ed., Lippincott, 2001) cover much of this subject matter. This high-priced, redundant source is not a necessary purchase. RBB
Copyright © American Library Association. All rights reserved
Product Details

* Hardcover: 2762 pages
* Publisher: Thomson Gale; 1st edition (December 15, 2001)
* Language: English
* ISBN-10: 0787649341
* ISBN-13: 978-0787649340


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'FYI
Scroll into,Nice Collection,,,
Some Medical Worth seeing
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Obstetrics and Gynecology, 2008
Ed
(Current Clinical Strategies)




Obstetrics and Gynecology, 2008 Edition (Current Clinical Strategies)Publisher: Current Clinical Strategies Pub
Number Of Pages: 207
Publication Date: 2007-09-30
ISBN-10 / ASIN: 193432308X
ISBN-13 / EAN: 9781934323083
Binding: Paperback

Product Description:
Gynecology and Obstetrics summarizes diagnosis and management of common disorders that occur in women. This text reviews approved treatment guidelines for both inpatients and outpatients.
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Mayo Clinic Cardiology: Board Review Questions and Answers New window


Mayo Clinic Cardiology: Board Review Questions and AnswersPublisher: Informa Healthcare
Number Of Pages: 352
Publication Date: 2007-11-28
ISBN-10 / ASIN: 142006746X
ISBN-13 / EAN: 9781420067460
Binding: Paperback

Book Description:
Focus on the right questions for the cardiology boards and recertification exam with the latest addition to the popular Mayo Clinic board review collection. Easy-to-use and organized by sections, this book includes more than 650 board-focused questions, full-color illustrations and explained answers focused on cutting-edge knowledge of accepted diagnostic methods, pharmacotherapy, and interventional, and non-interventional treatment options. Use this book to sharpen your board knowledge skills and improve your score. For further study and reference, use this book with the Mayo Clinic Cardiology Concise Textbook, Third Edition-a special value course pack is also available.

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Mayo Clinic Cardiology: Board Review Questions and Answers
http://www.filefactory.com/file/af5780/n/142006746X_rar
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Harrison’s Principles of Internal Medicine, 17th Edition (Free E-Book)

Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 17th Edition

By Anthony S. Fauci, Eugene Braunwald, Dennis L. Kasper, Stephen L. Hauser, Dan L. Longo, J. Larry Jameson, Joseph Loscalzo

Publisher: McGraw-Hill Professional
Number Of Pages: 2754
Publication Date: 2008-03-15
ISBN-10 / ASIN: 0071466339
ISBN-13 / EAN: 9780071466332
Binding: Hardcover

Book Description:

Introducing the most dramatically revised edition of Harrison’s ever!

Now with NEW bonus
DVD with 37 chapters and more than 500 brand new images and video clips!

MORE THAN TRUSTED, BEYOND ESSENTIAL . . .

The #1 selling medical textbook, Harrison’s has defined internal medicine for millions of clinicians and students. The new Seventeenth Edition retains Harrison’s acclaimed balance of pathobiology, cardinal signs and manifestations of disease, and best approaches to patient management, yet has been massively updated to give you an innovative array of bold new features and content. If ever there was one must-have resource for clinicians and students - this is it! worldwide,

UNMATCHED EXPERTISE AT YOUR FINGERTIPS

As an unprecedented amount of medical information for physicians Harrison’s Principles of Internal Medicine. Now more than ever, trust Harrison’s to filter and clarify the exploding knowledge base, to highlight the breakthroughs, and to deliver a clear, balanced distillation of the best and most current information on which to base clinical decisions. and students have turned to for over fifty years: bombards you and your patients, where do you go to sort it out and make sense of it all? When your patients request clarification on something they’ve “printed off” where do you turn for expert explanations? The same trusted resource

THE MOST EXCITING AND EXTENSIVELY REVISED EDITION EVER!

Here are just a few of the reasons why the new 17th Edition of Harrison’s is the best edition yet:

* Bonus companion DVD featuring: 37 new “e-chapters”; over 500 brand-new radiological, laboratory, and clinical images, including complete atlases; state-of-the-art video clips; an Image Bank of nearly all the illustrations contained in the parent text, and much more
Expanded, modernized illustration program with more than 800 brand-new, additional illustrations-a 60% increase over the previous edition
* Dozens of brand new chapters on vital topics in medical education and clinical practice: Global Issues in Medicine: Patient Safety, Cardiovascular Radiology, and much more! Also included a complete new Section on biological foundations and emerging clinical applications of regenerative medicine! and Health Quality; Health Disparities: Atlas of EKGs; Clinical Management of Obesity: Atlas of Hematology: Atlases of Chest, Neurological, and
Brand new, reader-friendly text design optimizes the full-color format
* An expanded, innovative focus on global health
* NEW Global Advisory Board comprised of 11 prominent medical experts from Asia, India, Europe, and South America
* Revision of the popular On Line Learning Center, which offers more skill-sharpening self-assessment questions and answers, plus additional case studies for helping you apply Harrison’s content to the daily care of patients
* Harrison’s related products are available in a full suite of formats to meet all your educational and clinical needs. Harrison’s Practice of Medicine is a complete database The Harrison’s Manual of Medicine is one of the most popular and heavily used handbook-sized resources in internal medicine. The Harrison’s Self-Assessment and Board Review features more than 1000 board-type cases and questions and highlights the use of Harrison’s as a great board prep resouce.

CHM | 166 MB
Includes e-chapters, but:

When opening a chapter, a popup will appear because of some script error. You’ll need to click OK, en then you can view the chapter without problems. However, when you click on another chapter, the script error popup will reappear. When clicked on “OK”, you can view the contents of that chapter without problems.
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    * http://rapidshare.com/files/100824472/Harrisons-17.part1.rar.html
    * http://rapidshare.com/files/100827017/Harrisons-17.part2.rar.html
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1. Tissue and Organ Regeneration in Adults

2. Turning up the Heat on Pain: TRPV1 Receptors in Pain and

inflammation(Progress in Inflammation Research)

3. Essentials of Anatomy And Physiology

4. Medical Secrets-Questions You will be asked

5. Pathologic Basis of Disease-Robbins & Cotran

6. Great Feuds in Medicine :Ten of the Liveliest Disputes Ever

7. The ECG Made Easy, 6th edition

8. Tissue and Organ Regeneration in Adults

9. Encyclopedia of Heart Diseases by M Gabriel Khan

10.Tumors of the Fetus & Infant-pdf


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Download Links

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Get Well At Home has been written, not only for laymen, but also for those special physicians and nurses who are seeking rational and natural approaches to common diseases. Together with detailed and systematic study of the medical literature, this introduction to simple remedies contains knowledge with which every medical practitioner should be familiar. This
author anticipates that Get Well At Home will become one of the most valued health references in every family library. It is to the health and happiness of you, dear reader or patient, that time has been devoted in translating a unique

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medical education into terms understandable by everyone.
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Davis’s Guide to Clinical Nursing Skills
Davis’s Guide to Clinical Nursing Skills

* Step-by-step directions for performing each procedure, with rationales for every nursing action, so you know not only what to do but why you’re doing it!
* A complete unit on physical assessment procedures, with more detailed coverage than any other handbook on clinical procedures.
* A “Special Considerations” section in each procedure that describes the needs of pediatric, geriatric, obstetrical, and home health clients.
* Specific guidelines for documenting the nursing care delivered for each procedure— important information for today’s increasingly complex healthcare environment.
* Client teaching procedures insure that you know what your clients need to know. More than 100 full-color illustrations.

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http://rapidshare.com/files/113810220/Nursing_Skills.pdf
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Becoming a Nurse in the 21st Century (Wiley Series in Nursing)

Ian Peate "Becoming a Nurse in the 21st Century (Wiley Series in Nursing)"
Wiley | 2006-10-06 | ISBN: 0470027290 | 522 pages | PDF | 2,5 MB

This is an accessible guide aimed at student nurses, introducing them, and guiding them through the Nursing and Midwifery Council's approved programmes of education for Registered Nurse status. Every programme of study that prepares a student to become a proficient registered nurse must be approved by the NMC and adhere to its standards and guidelines.

The book is broken in to four sections based on the four proficiencies stated by the NMC: Professional and Ethical Practice; Care Delivery; Care Management and Personal and Professional Development. It presents these proficiencies in an easy to understand and implement way, making it easily accessible for both students, and registered nurses who will find it a useful reference for their work and development.

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Smart Nursing: Nurse Retention & Patient Safety Improvement Strategies, Second Edition
5:56 PM Edit This
Smart Nursing: Nurse Retention & Patient Safety Improvement Strategies, Second Edition


Smart Nursing: Nurse Retention & Patient Safety Improvement Strategies, Second Edition (Springer Series: Nursing Management and Leadership)
Publisher: Springer Publishing Company | ISBN: 0826104649 | edition 2008 | PDF | 232 pages | 1,07 mb

In the children’s story, “Jack and the Beanstalk,” the mythical beanstalk grows and allows Jack to enter a mysterious world of peril and adventure, the land of the giant and his extraordinary riches. Within this land is a goose that lays golden eggs.
Health care managers face a similar situation. They also live with peril and adventure, especially while staffi ng their facilities. They have golden geese but don’t always recognize them. Their golden geese come disguised as nurses. Organizations are fi guratively killing their nurses, with negative working conditions and by actively ignoring their contributions. Nurses are one of health care’s greatest assets—health care gold.
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Creative Teaching Strategies for the Nurse Educator

Creative Teaching Strategies for the Nurse Educator

Judith W. Herrman "Creative Teaching Strategies for the Nurse Educator"
F A Davis Co | 2008-03-07 | ISBN: 0803614322 | 326 pages | PDF | 1,8 MB


Step in front of your desk and actively engage your students in learning with the techniques you ll find in this handy, quick reference. Here are practical, relevant, and easy-to-implement teaching strategies that will help you to be more creative in the classroom. The author offers techniques gathered over many years from the nursing education literature and from her own experience. Perfect as a stand-alone handbook or an accompaniment to any text!
Discusses the expectations of today s media savvy students.
Uses self assessments to help you to determine which strategies will work best for you and the best ways to implement them.
Lists the challenges presented by the learning situation and then demonstrates potential solutions and teaching methods to overcome them.
Offers operational guidelines for implementing innovative strategies, describing their advantages and disadvantages, using humor, finding teaching fuel or material, and guidelines for PowerPoint presentations.
Uses tabbed sections for the types of educational settings to make finding relevant material easy. Includes references from the literature.
Offers a comprehensive, annotated bibliography to help you locate original sources.
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Judith Barberio, “Nurse's Pocket Drug Guide 2009”

Nurse's Pocket Drug Guide 2009


McGraw-Hill Professional | 2008-08-18 | ISBN: 0071549706 | 368 pages | PDF | 1,7 MB

Specifically geared towards patient-care, this instant-access pocket guide provides registered nurses with essential, up-to-the-minute information on the selection and administration of 1,000 commonly used medications.This resource is revised annually to reflect approval of new drugs, changes in usage of current drugs, and withdrawal of older ones. The 2009 edition includes 30 additional herbal supplements. Organized alphabetically by drug name.

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Barbara A. Vitale "NCLEX-RN Notes: Core Review & Exam Prep"

Barbara A. Vitale "NCLEX-RN Notes: Core Review & Exam Prep"


F. A. Davis Company | 2007-04-08 | ISBN: 0803615701 | 272 pages | PDF | 1,4 MB


A Davis's Notes book. Prepare for the NCLEX wherever you are-at home, the library, on the bus or in line at the movie theater. The publishers of RNotesr and Davis's NCLEX-RNr Success and the co-author of Test Success and Fundamentals Success present the most portable reference ever for preparing for your licensure exam. The pocket-sized NCLEX-RNr Notes weighs little but it's no lightweight. It contains studying and test-taking tips, strategies, techniques, and nursing content in quick snippets to allow you to maximize your time to review. In addition to the tips and review within its pages, there's a NCLEX-RNr Notes mini CD-ROM enclosed with the book providing 1,000 multiple-choice and alternate format questions and answers with rationales for test review, with a focus on common test-taking errors with strategic tips on how to avoid them.
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CliffsTestPrep NCLEX-PN (Cliffs Test Prep NCLEX-RN)
9:47 PM Edit This
CliffsTestPrep NCLEX-PN (Cliffs Test Prep NCLEX-RN)



Cliffs Notes | ISBN: 0764572873 | 2005-03-07 | PDF | 512 pages | 2 Mb


The CliffsTestPrep series offers full-length practice exams that simulate the real tests; proven test-taking strategies to increase your chances at doing well; and thorough review exercises to help fill in any knowledge gaps.

CliffsTestPrep NCLEX-PN is a complete study guide to help you prepare for - and pass - the new NCLEX-PN (the National Council Licensure Examination that is required to obtain a license as a practical vocational nurse). This book contains eight chapters; each chapter contains questions based on the newest version of the exam. Inside this test prep tool, you'll find

* Three practice exams with answers and explanations
* Coverage of exam areas in terms of what to expect, what you should know, what to look for, and how you should approach each part
* Guidance on how to focus your review of specific subjects to make the most of your study time
* Introduction to the format and scoring of the exam, overall strategies for answering multiple-choice questions, and questions commonly asked about the NCLEX

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Cancer of the Gastrointestinal Tract: A Handbook for Nurse Practitioners
8:46 PM Edit This
Cancer of the Gastrointestinal Tract: A Handbook for Nurse Practitioners (Handbook for Nurse Practitioners Series)



By Davina Porock, Diane Palmer,

Publisher: Wiley
Number Of Pages: 200
Publication Date: 2005-11-29
Sales Rank: 3110807
ISBN / ASIN: 1861562659
EAN: 9781861562654
Binding: Paperback
Manufacturer: Wiley
Studio: Wiley


This text is a primer on the care of the patient with cancer of the gastrointestinal tract, for nurses who may not have experience in this demanding speciality.

The book begins with a comprehensive look at the issues and scope of the frequently used term "quality of life". Chapters two and three take an in-depth look at the impact of cancer on the individual and the family. Chapters four to six then introduce the principal aspects of cancer as a disease from both a medical and nursing perspective, beginning with cancers of the aerodigestive tract through to lower gastrointestinal cancers.

Chapter seven covers the role of nutrition in the prevention of cancer and the nutritional management of patients with cancer. Chapters eight and nine provide a guide to the management of patients undergoing radiotherapy and chemotherapy in order to familiarize the gastroenterology nurse with what may lie ahead for the patient.

The final chapter outlines the principles of symptom management and palliative care for integration into patient care throughout the course of cancer.

Download Description:

This text is a primer on the care of the patient with cancer of the gastrointestinal tract, for nurses who may not have experience in this demanding speciality. The book begins with a comprehensive look at the issues and scope of the frequently used term ""quality of life"". Chapters two and three take an in-depth look at the impact of cancer on the individual and the family. Chapters four to six then introduce the principal aspects of cancer as a disease from both a medical and nursing perspective, beginning with cancers of the aerodigestive tract through to lower gastrointestinal cancers. Chapter seven covers the role of nutrition in the prevention of cancer and the nutritional management of patients with cancer. Chapters eight and nine provide a guide to the management of patients undergoing radiotherapy and chemotherapy in order to familiarize the gastroenterology nurse with what may lie ahead for the patient. The final chapter outlines the principles of symptom management and palliative care for integration into patient care throughout the course of cancer.
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Nurse Managers: A Guide to Practice

Andrew Crowther "Nurse Managers: A Guide to Practice"


Ausmed Publications | 2004-01 | ISBN: 0975044508 | 291 pages | PDF | 1,6 MB


Nurse Managers: a guide to practice discusses core issues associated with nurse management, and will serve as an essential primary text for all nurses as they develop their managerial skills. Covers promotion, leadership and motivation, moral management, dealing with unhelpful staff, occupational health and safety, budgets, information technology, and many other vital issues in modern nurse management. International authors have contributed concise, eminently readable chapters that enable easy access to evidence-based information and practical advice in dealing with managerial issues. Andrew Crowther is assistant director of nursing at the Royal Adelaide Hospital, Australia.

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Nurse's Pocket Guide: Diagnoses, Prioritized Interventions, and Rationales
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Nurse's Pocket Guide: Diagnoses, Prioritized Interventions, and Rationales



Publisher:F. A. Davis Company | Pages:968 | 2008-02 | ISBN:0803618573 | PDF | 4.5 MB

This is the perfect resource for hospital and community-based settings! The 11th Edition is a must-have reference that delivers client focused care planning in a clear and concise manner. And, a handy, removable laminated "Nurse's Pocket Minder", featuring the latest NANDA conference nursing diagnoses, is also included.It contains new and revised diagnoses from 17th NANDA Conference (2007-2008). Sized to fit in a pocket and use in a clinical setting, this book comes in easy-to-use, quick-reference format. It offers coverage of Concept Mapping and includes icons for interventions - cultural, collaborative, community/home care, diagnostic studies, pediatric/geriatric/lifespan, medications. It offers expanded content on the nursing process and an index with over 400 diseases/disorders. It also includes actions/interventions uniquely organized by priority with selected rationales.
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Acute Medicine: A Handbook for Nurse Practitioners (Wiley Series in Nursing)

Acute Medicine: A Handbook for Nurse Practitioners (Wiley Series in Nursing)


Publisher: Wiley
Number Of Pages: 280
Publication Date: 2007-04-27
Sales Rank: 714704
ISBN / ASIN: 0470026820
EAN: 9780470026823
Binding: Paperback
Manufacturer: Wiley
Studio: Wiley


This book provides Nurse Practitioners working in the field of Acute Medicine with an up to date, practical, and comprehensive guide to the management of acute medical patients. It serves as a text from which the busy highly skilled nurse can obtain information on assessment, diagnosis, and management of acute medical conditions. It identifies priorities for treatment and guides the reader through the management of the patient. Wherever possible the latest published guidelines have been included. The final chapter of the book considers the legal, professional and ethical issues faced by nurses working at an advanced level. The issues of role development, the development of protocols and prescribing are considered.

PDF 4.4 Mb with bookmarks ; RAR 1.8 Mb
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Nurse to Nurse: Evidence-Based Practice

Nurse to Nurse: Evidence-Based Practice




Publisher:McGraw-Hill Professional | Pages:242 | 2008-08-26 | ISBN:0071493727 | PDF | 1.5 MB


A unique "mentor in a pocket" handbook covering one of the most important trends in nursing today

From the co-creator of the Model for Change to Evidence-Based Practice comes the first portable guide to evidence-based practice for direct care nurses in any healthcare setting.

Part of McGraw-Hill's Nurse to Nurse series, this title includes PDA download of the entire text, case studies, and explicit step-by-step instructions on how to apply the Model for Evidence-Based Practice Change. Coated flex-binding repels stains.

The new Nurse to Nurse series is specifically designed to simulate the teaching experience nurses learn best from: trusted mentors carefully explaining what they must do in specific clinical situtions. Written in a consistent, single-author voice, this series brings the wisdom and experience of some of the foremost experts to non-specialist nurses in clinical care.

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Atlas of Diabetes Mellitus

Atlas of Diabetes Mellitus

* Publisher: Informa HealthCare
* Number Of Pages: 136
* Publication Date: 2006-10-27
* ISBN-10 / ASIN: 0415376491
* ISBN-13 / EAN: 9780415376495
* Binding: Hardcover


Description:
Diabetes mellitus is an extremely common disease that is reaching epidemic proportions owing to major increases in the incidence of obesity and the propensity for a sedentary life. The need for physicians to familiarize themselves with all forms of diabetes is essential and the Atlas of Diabetes Mellitus goes a long way toward making the task easier for both qualified physicians and those in training.

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Your Symptoms Are Real: What to Do When Your Doctor Says Nothing Is Wrong

Your Symptoms Are Real: What to Do When Your Doctor Says Nothing Is Wrong



* Publisher: Wiley
* Number Of Pages: 288
* Publication Date: 2007-10-26
* ISBN-10 / ASIN: 0471740284
* ISBN-13 / EAN: 9780471740285
* Binding: Hardcover


Description: Your Symptoms Are Real

"Thank God for this book. It provides the help that millions of Americans with 'silent illnesses' like chronic fatigue and fibromyalgia have been waiting for. Dr. Natelson is a brilliant and compassionate clinician who covers the best treatments that medical science has to offer, along with a thorough consideration of complementary approaches. Short of cloning him, this book offers the specific help you need to work in partnership with your own physician."
--Joan Borysenko, Ph.D., author of
Minding the Body, Mending the Mind

"Natelson is the kind of doctor every patient is looking for: smart, thoughtful, empathetic, and supportive. Reading Your Symptoms Are Real is the next best thing to having a world-renowned specialist managing your case."
--Charles W. Lapp, M.D., Director of the Hunter-Hopkins Center
and Assistant Consulting Professor at Duke University Medical Center

"Do not throw up your hands and give up when one doctor after another tells you there is nothing wrong with you--instead, read this book! Benjamin Natelson is the person you have been looking for to guide you on your path to recovery."
--Sandra Blakeslee, coauthor of The Body Has a Mind of Its Own

"Natelson superbly incorporates research studies, clinical trials (even on drugs in development), and patient case reports in this book. If you are battling pain and fatigue symptoms but your tests are all normal, you will enjoy reading Natelson's pro-patient approach to explaining the real nature of your illness, his recommended treatment approaches, and how to cope with everything that is going on in your life."
--Kristin Thorson, editor of the Fibromyalgia Network and President of the American Fibromyalgia Syndrome Association.


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British Journal Of Radiology, 2007, Volume 80

British Journal Of Radiology, 2007, Volume 80



The British Journal of Radiology is the official peer reviewed journal of the British Institute of Radiology, covering all clinical and technical aspects of diagnostic imaging, radiotherapy and radiobiology. The first issue of BJR was published in 1928, but its history can be traced back to the very first radiological journal - its 'great-great-grandfather' - 'The Archives of Clinical Skiagraphy' published in 1896. BJR has played a pivotal role in the development of the radiological sciences, and published the pioneering work done by Hounsfield and Ambrose on Computed Tomography in 1973.

BJR is published monthly and includes full papers, reviews, commentaries, pictorial reviews, case reports, short communications, cases of the month, letters and book reviews. It is an international journal with around half the papers published coming from overseas. As well as being sent to BIR members the journal has a wide library circulation.

Since 1997, BJR has also been published on the World Wide Web as BJR Online. From May 2001 we have produced BJR Online in association with Stanford University's HighWire Press at http://bjr.birjournals.org. BJR Online may be accessed by BIR Members and Institutional BJR subscribers. In addition to receiving the printed and electronic version of BJR, Members and Institutional subscribers have free access to the electronic version of the BIR's second journal, Imaging.

The BJR Online full-text PDF archive goes back to January 1997, with HTML versions of articles available for 2001. Abstracts and tables of contents go back as far as the mid-1970s and mid-1960s respectively.

BJR Online includes features such as free article alerting and reference cross-linking to kindred HighWire journals such as Radiology and AJR.


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Stedman's Electronic Medical Dictionary: Version 6.0 (CD- ROM)

Stedman's Electronic Medical Dictionary: Version 6.0 (CD- ROM)



* Publisher: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins
* Number Of Pages:
* Publication Date: 2003-11-01
* ISBN-10 / ASIN: 0781744156
* ISBN-13 / EAN: 9780781744157
* Binding: CD-ROM

Description:
Stedman's Electronic Medical Dictionary, Version 6.0 provides fast, easy access to over 104,000 fundamental and cutting-edge medical terms and features clearly written definitions, written and audio pronunciations, etymologies, images, tables, and anatomical animations. This enhanced new version of the most trusted electronic medical dictionary includes over 1,500 images (most in full color), nearly 40,000 audio pronunciations including eponymous terms and combining forms, and additional terminology related to such specialties as embryology, endocrinology, geriatrics, histology, internal medicine, and pediatrics. Users can add their own terms to the User Dictionary, Bookmark frequently accessed terms, and view their History list for quick reference. Once the program is installed, users can access Stedman's Electronic Medical Dictionary directly from their word processor's tools menu. Windows / Macintosh Compatible

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Clinical Examination: A Systematic Guide to Physical Diagnosis

Clinical Examination: A Systematic Guide to Physical Diagnosis



* Publisher: Churchill Livingstone
* Number Of Pages: 520
* Publication Date: 2005-12-01
* ISBN-10 / ASIN: 0729537625
* ISBN-13 / EAN: 9780729537629
* Binding: Paperback

Description:
The new 5th edition of Clinical Examination continues to serve all medical students with a clear and understandable explanation of clinical examination. Set out logically and systematically, this best-selling textbook has comprehensive coverage of essential skills necessary for history taking and examining the patient. Highly regarded by students world-wide, this text continues to grow in strength. Clinical Examination, 5th edition has been revised and updated to include: more evidence-based medicine; new full-color artwork; and a fresh new look allowing greater accessibility for readers. The new edition covers clinical examination and concepts in a systems approach in a clear, consistent and user-friendly approach. Readers using this edition of Clinical Examination will have access to www.studentconsult.com. Here you will receive full online access to the text and numerous interactive extras such as video clips demonstrating some of the more difficult examinations & MCQ's. Written by two internationally renowned authors, Clinical Examination, 5th edition will continue to provide students with a superb reference for performing clinical methods.

* Offers access to the full text and other valuable features online via the STUDENT CONSULT website.
* Now in full-color.
* New artwork provides consistency and improves quality of images as seen in previous edition.
* New design of overall layout offering greater accessibility.
* More evidence-based medicine.

http://rapidshare.com/files/134854402/cexam.rar
Clinical Problem Solving in Dentistry
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Clinical Problem Solving in Dentistry



* Publisher: Churchill Livingstone
* Number Of Pages: 300
* Publication Date: 2004-04-15
* ISBN-10 / ASIN: 0443073864
* ISBN-13 / EAN: 9780443073861
* Binding: Paperback

Description:
This book is designed to explain to dental students the processes of diagnosis and treatment planning, through consideration of clinical cases and problems associated with aspects of all dental specialties. It presents a series of case histories from all the major areas of dentistry, and uses a question-and-answer format to guide readers through the process of examination, differential diagnosis, investigations, diagnosis and treatment. It prepares readers for the wide variety of problems likely to be encountered in clinical practice.

* 56 cases in clinical dentistry are presented in a practical, problem-based approach, leading the reader toward the correct diagnosis and treatment plan.
* Treatment alternatives are explored and evaluated in terms of their advantages and disadvantages.
* Material from all the dental specialties is integrated in the cases presented, in order to cover the full range of real-world clinical problems.
* Color illustrations throughout bring the cases to life and clarify important concepts.
* All cases from the first edition have been updated, and 13 new cases have been added to this edition.
* Additional information is provided on behavioral management of nervous or difficult patients.
* More content on pediatric dentistry has been added.
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Grant's Atlas of Anatomy CD-ROM Win/Mac
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Grant's Atlas of Anatomy CD-ROM Win/Mac



The eleventh edition of this atlas continues to provide students with accurate anatomical images presented in a pedagogically effective, clinically relevant manner. This new edition has been revised to include 100 additional four-color illustrations, additional orientation drawings, and updated terminology. Also included is a student version of Dynamic Human Anatomy, and interactive electronic supplement which includes all of the illustrations from the 11th Edition of Grant's, as well as USMLE-style review questions in anatomy.

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Frank Netter's Atlas of Human Anatomy CD Rom
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View and print over 900 anatomical illustrations from Frank Netter's Atlas of Human Anatomy CD Rom. Print in black and white or in color, with or without labels. Perfect for review and testing.

965 Netter illustrations and images
Audio pronunciations of every label, image title and image subtitle
A handy movable magnifying window giving users a detailed close-up of any anatomy plate - up to 2x magnification
A multi-level search tool and printing capability for both gray-scale and color
Windows and Mac compatible!

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US ARMY Medical Series

US ARMY Medical Series

Open the folder below :

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Encyclopedia of Nursing Research

Encyclopedia of Nursing Research
Second Edition


Book Description

Case Western Reserve Univ., Cleveland, OH. Text includes 320 articles by 200 expert contributors on topics such as nursing services, education, care, specialties, organizations and publications, cancer survivorship, middle range theories, taxonomy, HIV risk behavior, depression in cardiac disease, and more. Previous edition: 1998. DNLM: Nursing Research--Encyclopedias--English.

Book Info

Case Western Reserve Univ., Cleveland, OH. Authoritative, comprehensive resource for nurses at all levels who are interested in research. By a Brandon/Hill Nursing List author. DNLM: Nursing Research encyclopedias.

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Gale Encyclopedia of Nursing and Allied Health
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Gale Encyclopedia of Nursing and Allied Health


Anyone with an interest in nursing and health will be pleased with this new edition. It will be especially helpful for students who are interested in becoming biomedical equipment technologists, dental hygienists (one of those professions indicated to be growing in the future), dieticians, health care administrators, medical technologists, clinical laboratory scientists, registered and licensed practical nurses, nurse anesthetists, nurse practitioners, nurse midwives, occupational therapists, optometrists, pharmacy technicians, physical therapists, radiological technologists, and speech language therapists. Each volume begins with the same list of entries and an introduction to the set. Individual entries follow a rubric for each of the following types: diseases/disorders, tests/procedures, equipment/tools, human biology/body systems, nursing and allied health professions, and current health issues although all have a definition and a description, resources and key terms. Bold-faced terms in the signed articles indicate a related article elsewhere. Cross-references help direct readers from alternate names and related topics to entries. Beige-colored inset boxes offer key terms while blue inset boxes have drug information. Articles have lists of resources including books, periodicals, and organizations. Many articles have color illustrations and sketches. Your health teachers will welcome this as an inviting resource for students to use for introductory research.
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Davis’s Guide to Clinical Nursing Skills
is
Davis’s Guide to Clinical Nursing Skills
Davis’s Guide to Clinical Nursing Skills

* Step-by-step directions for performing each procedure, with rationales for every nursing action, so you know not only what to do but why you’re doing it!
* A complete unit on physical assessment procedures, with more detailed coverage than any other handbook on clinical procedures.
* A “Special Considerations” section in each procedure that describes the needs of pediatric, geriatric, obstetrical, and home health clients.
* Specific guidelines for documenting the nursing care delivered for each procedure— important information for today’s increasingly complex healthcare environment.
* Client teaching procedures insure that you know what your clients need to know. More than 100 full-color illustrations.
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Spine Technology Handbook

Spine Technology Handbook




Product Description:

Over the past decade, there has been rapid growth in bioengineering applications in the field of spine implants. This book explains the technical foundation for understanding and expanding the field of spine implants, reviews the major established technologies related to spine implants, and provides reference material for developing and commercializing new spine implants. The editors, who have a track record of collaboration and editing technical books, provide a unified approach to this topic in the most comprehensive and useful book to date.

· Related website provides the latest information on spine technology including articles and research papers on the latest technology and development.
· Major technologies reviewed include devices used for fusion (screws, plates, rods, and cages), disc repair and augmentation, total disc replacement, and vertebral body repair and augmentation.
· Technology landscape, review of published/public domain data currently available, and safety and efficacy of technology discussed in detail.

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Vital Lung Function: Vital Guides



* Publisher: Class Publishing
* Number Of Pages: 96
* Publication Date: 2006-10-01
* ISBN-10 / ASIN: 1859591612
* ISBN-13 / EAN: 9781859591611
* Binding: Spiral-bound
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A-Z of Haematology



Summary:

Dictionary to definitions covering the entire spectrum of hematology, from blood transfusion and coagulation through to recent advances in molecular hematology. For practitioners and students as well as researchers. More than 70 figures explain and clarify difficult concepts.
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The Encyclopedia of Parkinson's Disease: Facts on File Library of Health and Living

The Encyclopedia of Parkinson's Disease: Facts on File Library of Health and Living



* Publisher: Facts on File
* Number Of Pages: 384
* Publication Date: 2004-03
* ISBN-10 / ASIN: 0816050325
* ISBN-13 / EAN: 9780816050321
* Binding: Hardcover
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Fundamentals of Neurology: An Illustrated Guide
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Fundamentals of Neurology: An Illustrated Guide



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Neurology in Clinical Practice (2 vol. set)
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Neurology in Clinical Practice (2 vol. set)



* Publisher: Butterworth-Heinemann
* Number Of Pages: 2512
* Publication Date: 2003-11-20
* Sales Rank: 490474
* ISBN / ASIN: 0750674695
* EAN: 9780750674690
* Binding: Hardcover
* Manufacturer: Butterworth-Heinemann
* Studio: Butterworth-Heinemann
* Average Rating: 3.5
* Total Reviews: 6

Book Description:
This multimedia package includes the New Edition of the textbook plus online access to a searchable version of the text, content updates, and more at www.nicp.com. A distinguished team of experts provides comprehensive guidance on neurological care, from diagnosing the cause of a particular problem using neuroimaging, electrophysiology, and other methods of investigation to understanding the underlying pathophysiology and clinical manifestations of diseases and disorders, and planning the appropriate treatment.
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Hematology in Practice

Hematology in Practice




* Publisher: F. A. Davis Company
* Number Of Pages: 348
* Publication Date: 2007-01-30
* ISBN-10 / ASIN: 0803615264
* ISBN-13 / EAN: 9780803615267
* Binding: Hardcover

Description:
Author Betty Ciesla brings a fresh voice to the practice of hematology withher exciting new text. With descriptive, accessible language, Hematology in Practice presents the need to know concepts of hematology and provides the knowledge to integrate theory and procedure with successful performance in the clinical laboratory setting.
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Pediatric Ophthalmology, Neuro-Ophthalmology, Genetics

Pediatric Ophthalmology, Neuro-Ophthalmology, Genetics



Product Details:

Hardcover: 334 pages
Publisher: Springer; 1 edition (December 3, 2007)
Language: English
ISBN-10: 3540336788
ISBN-13: 978-3540336785

The broad field of neuro-ophthalmology encompasses lesions of both the afferent and efferent pathways, which can result from various etiologies: tumoral, paraneoplastic, vascular, inflammatory, infectious, or hereditary, just to name a few.

This volume of Essentials in Ophthalmology is dedicated to the review of new developments in neuro-ophthalmology, including those in diagnosis, physiology, investigations or therapeutic options. It is divided into six parts, designed to provide the clinician with a summary of some of the newest data regarding: Diseases of the optic nerve, unusual retinopathies, new methods of investigations of the retina, optic nerve, and visual brain, neuro-ophthalmic implications of some systemic disorders, oculomotility, visual rehabilitation.

This up-to-date, concise, and practical book will help the clinician understand the unusual diseases of certain patients with neuro-ophthalmic disorders.

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http://rapidshare.com/files/116597076/Pediatric_Ophthalmology.pdf

Neuroexam Videos - Dr Hal Blumenfeld

Neuroexam Videos - Dr Hal Blumenfeld
(Videos)



The NeuroExam Video demonstrates how to perform a complete neurologic examination. It is intended for medical students, residents, and other students in the health care professions.
The NeuroExam Video introduces the neurologic exam, and then presents a detailed demonstration of the exam consisting of the following six subdivision:

1. Mental status
2. Cranial nerves
3. Motor exam
4. Reflexes
5. Coordination and gait
6. Sensory exam

In the era of modern neuroimaging methods, the neurologic exam remains an essential diagnostic tool. It is a critical way station in the clinical decision making process, dictating whether imaging studies or other tests are required. In addition, the neurologic exam enables the clinician to decide what regions should be imaged, and when emergency therapeutic interventions are needed prior to any diagnostic tests. By understanding how to perform and interpret the neurologic exam, health care professionals in all specialties can help preserve the functioning of the nervous system, vastly improving patient quality of life.

Here is a single zip file with all the 77 videos ripped in real media format with a browsable index.htm file:
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Pass:http://www.medicalgeek.com

The Merck Manual of Diagnosis and Therapy, 17th Edition

The Merck Manual of Diagnosis (CD-ROM)



The Merck Manual of Diagnosis and Therapy, 17th Edition

The most widely used medical reference in the world. More than 10 million copies sold in 18 languages since it was first published in 1899–revised, updated, and redesigned with more changes than any edition in the past twenty years.



The Campbell Biology, 6th Edition CDROM by Neil A. Campbell and Jane B. Reese

The Campbell Biology, 6th Edition CDROM by Neil A. Campbell and Jane B. Reese



The Campbell/Reece brand of current content The authors have thoroughly updated each of the book's eight units to reflect our evolving understanding of life at its many levels, from molecules to ecosystems. You can count on Campbell and Reece to make topics as diverse as the Human Genome Project and the revolution in systematics accessible to your students without oversimplification. Other examples of updated content include HIV as a research model in evolutionary biology, the role of cell-signaling pathways in plant responses, new frontiers in neurobiology, and experimental approaches that are advancing ecology..

The added expertise of leading scientists
To assure accurate representation of each field of biology, a team of stellar specialists worked with the authors in updating selected chapters. These contributors include ecologist Charles Krebs (University of British Columbia), science historian Garland Allen (Washington University, St. Louis), neuroscientist Deric Bownds (University of Wisconsin), physiological ecologist Mark Chappell (University of California, Riverside), plant biologist Linda Graham (University of Wisconsin), plant physiologist Peter Minorsky (Vassar College), immunologist Mary Jane Niles (University of San Francisco), and evolutionary biologist Mark Ridley (Oxford University).

New "Guided Tour" diagrams
New to Biology, Sixth Edition is an innovative design breakthrough that explicitly guides students through the more challenging figures. Guided Tour diagrams succinctly explain key structures, functions, and steps of processes within the figure, reducing the need to look back and forth between legend and art. It's as if an instructor were looking over the student's shoulder and clarifying each part of a figure! Guided Tour commentary is set in blue, making it easy to differentiate these explanations from ordinary labels and keeping the figure itself clear and uncluttered.

An even greater emphasis on the process of science
The authors have created a new Chapter 1 that uses fresh examples to introduce students to science as a way of knowing the world of life. Examples of the process of science are highlighted throughout the book, and each chapter includes a "Process of Science" question that encourages students to experience science. Media activities give students additional practice with analysis of data and other science skills. And eight new interviews with renowned researchers humanize science as a social activity.

An evolution theme more pervasive than ever
Greater emphasis on evolution in Chapter 1, many new sections throughout the book that provide an evolutionary perspective for diverse topics, and evolution questions for students to answer at the ends of all chapters are examples of how the authors have strengthened evolution as the theme that integrates Biology, Sixth Edition.

Enriched chapter reviews
Countering the trend to make textbooks lighter by reducing the learning tools available to students at the ends of chapters, the authors have made the chapter reviews in Biology, Sixth Edition more robust and effective than ever. In addition to the excellent chapter summaries and thoughtful multiple choice questions of earlier editions, the chapter reviews now include short-answer questions and several categories of questions designed to catalyze student inquiry.

Campbell Image Presentation Library
Just one example of a media package that's better than ever, the new Campbell Image Presentation Library is a chapter-by-chapter visual archive that includes approximately 1600 photos (from both the text and additional sources), all of the textbook's art and tables with and without labels in several convenient formats (pdf and jpeg or gif), over 100 animations, and 60 video clips. All of the diverse images
art, animations, photos, and videos
are organized by chapter. File names include figure numbers and a brief description. The art, photos, and tables are also provided as PowerPoint slides. In addition, a prepared PowerPoint lecture with art, photos, and text is available.

Integrated media for students
Media references at the end of each chapter direct students to a wealth of additional learning opportunities. The CD-ROM and web site included with each book contain over 300 activities and videos, a Process of Science investigation for each chapter, applications, case studies, interactive chapter reviews, objectives, word roots, key terms, several forms of assessment for each chapter (Pre-Test, Activities Quiz, Chapter Quiz, Essay Questions), a glossary with pronunciations, and the Campbell Biology interviews. In addition, the web site provides access to the Biology Tutor Center, web links, news, Syllabus Manager, and the Image Library. These materials are also included in the following course management systems: CourseCompass, BlackBoard, and WebCT.
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Reactive Oxygen Metabolites: Chemistry and Medical Consequences



* Publisher: CRC
* Number Of Pages: 608
* Publication Date: 2000-07-21
* ISBN-10 / ASIN: 0849308917
* ISBN-13 / EAN: 9780849308918
* Binding: Hardcover

Description:
In recent years, the field of radical chemistry has undergone explosive growth. Although its roots lie in organic chemistry, the implications of its findings are having enormous impact in a broad range of disciplines, and we now have evidence for radical involvement in over 100 diseases. As important as this is, however, the subject of radicals and reactive oxygen metabolites (ROMs) is complex and barely touched upon in the curriculum of medical schools. Reactive Oxygen Metabolites brings the subject within the grasp of even those with little preparation in chemistry. From the basic chemistry of radicals through the pathology, the author provides a clear and thorough introduction to ROMs and their importance to human health and disease. Exhaustively researched and referenced, this highly readable work will give you the ability to critically analyze and evaluate many pathological problems arising from the chemistry of ROMs and reduce them to their lowest common denominator. It is the ideal vehicle for people who need to understand the importance of reactive oxygen and nitrogen species in human health and disease but have neither the time, the inclination, nor perhaps the background to work their way through the mountain of original literature.

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CURRENT Essentials Orthopedics: Lange Current
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CURRENT Essentials Orthopedics: Lange Current



* Publisher: McGraw-Hill Medical
* Number Of Pages: 272
* Publication Date: 2007-11-15
* ISBN-10 / ASIN: 0071439234
* ISBN-13 / EAN: 9780071439237
* Binding: Paperback

Description:
CURRENT ESSENTIALS ORTHOPEDICS-the ultimate at-a-glance bedside guide!

* “Nutshell” information on the diagnosis and treatment of the 200 most common orthopedic diseases and disorders
* One disorder per page, with bulleted lists for easy access
* Covers all relevant procedures, from adult reconstructive surgery to foot and ankle surgery
* ICD9-CM codes for each topic, allowing you to code and classify morbidity data after making the diagnosis
* Organized by Essentials of Diagnosis
* Handy tabs that give you point-of-care answers in an instant
* A pearl per page
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BEIKS Medical Dictionary V6.0.1084
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BEIKS Medical Dictionary V6.0.1084
6
Overview: Extensive medical dictionary with explanations in English of over 38, 000 unique medical terms.



Product details

The Medical Dictionary for Windows Mobile® wasdesigned to cover the needs of doctors, pharmacists, scientists,healthcare professionals, students and academics. Whether professionalon the job or a medical student on the go you should find thisdictionary a handy and useful addition to your medical arsenal.

Basedon the mobile industry standard BEIKS Dictionary Reader, this productis specially optimized for one-hand operation, minimal memoryrequirements and optimal access speed. It can be installed on eithermain memory or on an extension media card and once installed does NOTrequire or utilize network connection.

The Medical Dictionarylexicon contains over 38,000 unique medical terms and references withcompact yet informational definitions.

BEIKS, LLC and itsMedical Dictionary for Windows Mobile® are proud owners of Handango’s“Best Medical Application” award in its annual Handango Champion awards.

English Dictionary for Windows Mobile award winner of PPC Magazine for 2002

Medical dictionary for Windows Mobile Medicine dictionary for Windows Mobile General Medical dictionary for Windows Mobile.

Dictionary features:

Basedon the mobile industry standard BEIKS dictionary program BDictyDictionary covering all major mobile platforms (Palm OS®, WindowsMobile® / Pocket PC®, Linux / Sharp Zaurus®)
Medical Dictionary lexicon with over 38,000 unique Medical terms
Expandable with other BEIKS dictionaries and phrase books for Windows Mobile®
Optimized for Widows smartphones one-hand operation
Quick input for Windows Smartphone via virtual keyboard panel
Open secondary dictionary option
Dictionary browsing with fast word positioning
Installable in the main handset memory or on a media card
Excellent data compression
Free software updates*
Download availability online
Built-in help documentation.
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History And Examination At A Glance




ISBN:0632059664
Author:Jonathan Gleadle
Publisher:Blackwell Publishers
Page:216 pages
Edition: English
Catalog: Diagnosis
FormatDF
Book Description
History and Examination At a Glance provides a concise, readily accessible introduction and revision guide designed in accordance with current teaching practice. The book follows the easy-to-use At a Glance format of double page spreads composed of clear memorable diagrams that support accompanying key facts and essential information.
For ease of understanding, the book has a four-part approach. Section I introduces students to key history taking and communication skills including relationships with patients, family history, functional enquiry and more. Section II covers the history and examination of the systems as well as the principles and presentation of a history and examination. Section III and IV cover all the common clinical presentations and system based conditions, how they present and how to make a diagnosis. These include topics from chest pain, headache, unconscious patient, attempted suicide and trauma to aortic aneurysm, renal failure, asthma, stroke and much more.
History and Examination At a Glance will be an essential resource for all medical students as well as students in other health professions. It is ideal for clinical training, for the run up to OSCE as well as other clinical examinations and it will be an absolute cornerstone to anyone’s clinical attachments! The book is designed to fit into the reading time as well as the budget of students and trainees.
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Kochar's Clinical Medicine for Students





* Publisher: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins
* Number Of Pages: 800
* Publication Date: 2008-02-01
* ISBN-10 / ASIN: 0781766990
* ISBN-13 / EAN: 9780781766999
* Binding: Paperback

Description:
Substantially revised, reorganized, and updated for its Fifth Edition, this concise textbook is ideal for medical students in internal medicine clinical clerkships. This edition's content reflects current guidelines from the Clerkship Directors in Internal Medicine and the National Board of Medical Examiners on topics necessary for this rotation. The organization and presentation of the material is divided into three sections: the diagnostic and clinical approach to common presenting complaints with particular attention to elements of the differential diagnosis; diseases and disorders frequently encountered in medicine, formally described in a logical and structured manner; and principles of ambulatory medicine.

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Pathophysiology: PreTest Self-Assessment & Review
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Pathophysiology: PreTest Self-Assessment & Review





Pre-Test Basic Science Series
Product Details

* Paperback: 480 pages
* Publisher: McGraw-Hill Medical; 3 edition (August 9, 2004)
* Language: English
* ISBN-10: 0071434925
* ISBN-13: 978-0071434928
* Product Dimensions: 8.2 x 5.4 x 0.6 inches
* Size: 2,35 mb
* Format: PDF

These "500 questions, answers, and explanation" books are designed to simulate the United States Medical Licensing Examination (USMLE) Step 1. Each is authored by an expert in the field and has been reviewed by students who have recently passed the exam. As Step 1 is becoming increasingly more clinical in nature, when applicable, clinical vignette-style questions requiring a two-step reasoning process are also included. All of the Pretest titles include a "high-yield" fact section to reinforce key concepts.
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Learning Medicine





* Publisher: Cambridge University Press
* Number Of Pages: 256
* Publication Date: 2008-01-14
* ISBN-10 / ASIN: 0521709679
* ISBN-13 / EAN: 9780521709675
* Binding: Paperback

Description:
Learning Medicine is a must-read for anyone thinking of a career in medicine, or who is already in the training process and wants to understand and explore the various options and alternatives along the way. Whatever your background, whether you are school-leaver or mature student, if you are interested in finding out more about becoming and being a good doctor, this is the book for you. In continuous publication since 1983, and now in its eighteenth edition, Learning Medicine provides the most current, honest and informative source of essential knowledge combined with pragmatic guidance. Learning Medicine describes medical school courses, explains foundation years and outlines the wide range of speciality choices allowing tomorrow's doctors to decide about their future careers; but it also goes further to consider the privilege and responsibility of being a doctor, providing food for thought and reflection throughout a long and rewarding career.

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A Manual of Laboratory and Diagnostic Tests
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A Manual of Laboratory and Diagnostic Tests




* Publisher: Lippincott Williams & Wilkins
* Number Of Pages: 1344
* Publication Date: 2008-05-01
* ISBN-10 / ASIN: 0781771943
* ISBN-13 / EAN: 9780781771948
* Binding: Paperback

Description:
Now in its Eighth Edition, this leading comprehensive manual helps nurses deliver safe, effective, and informed care for patients undergoing diagnostic tests and procedures. The book covers a broad range of laboratory and diagnostic tests and studies that are delivered to varied patient populations in varied settings. Tests are grouped according to specimen and function/test type (e.g. blood, urine, stool, cerebrospinal fluid, etc.). Each test is described in detail, with step-by-step guidance on correct procedure, tips for accurate interpretation, and instructions for patient preparation and aftercare. Clinical Alerts highlight critical safety information.

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100 Questions in Cardiology


100 Questions in Cardiology
Publisher: BMJ Publishing Group | ISBN: 0727914898 | May 2001 | 222 Pages | PDF | 1,5 MB

A guide to the management of common cardiological scenarios, this book offers the response of leading experts in each field to the more common, and often poorly dealt with problems of cardiology. It is a very useful “how-to” guide, based on sound evidence.

(BMJ Books) UCL Hospitals, London, UK. More than 100 questions are answered by leading cardiologists. Practical guide to management of complicated situations. For practitioners and residents.

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Atlas Epilepsy Care in the World 2005


This atlas is one of the most comprehensive compilations of available resources for epilepsy ever attempted, providing an illustrative presentation of information on the current status of epilepsy services and care available from 160 countries covering 97.5% of the world population. The data confirm what professionals in the field of epilepsy have known for a long time, that epilepsy care is grossly inadequate compared with the needs in most countries: "when it comes to epilepsy care, most countries are developing countries".

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Pregnancy, Childbirth, Postpartum and Newborn Care A Guide for Essential Practice

Pregnancy, Childbirth, Postpartum and Newborn Care A Guide for Essential Practice


This guide provides a full range of updated, evidence-based norms and standards that will enable health care providers to give high quality care during pregnancy, delivery and in the postpartum period, considering the needs of the mother and her newborn baby.
All recommendations are for skilled attendants working at the primary level of health care, either at the facility or in the community. They apply to all women attending antenatal care, in delivery, postpartum or post abortion care, or who come for emergency care, and to all newborns at birth and during the first week of life (or later) for routine and emergency care.
This guide is a guide for clinical decision-making. It facilitates the collection, analysis, classification and use of relevant information by suggesting key questions, essential observations and/or examinations, and recommending appropriate research-based interventions. It promotes the early detection of complications and the initiation of early and appropriate treatment, including time referral, if necessary.
Correct use of this guide should help reduce high maternal and perinatal mortality and morbidity rates prevalent in many parts of the developing world, thereby making pregnancy and childbirth safer.


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Female Urology, Urogynecology, and Voiding Dysfunction
cology, and Voiding Dysfunction


Heavily illustrated for clear navigation and understanding of anatomical sites, surgical techniques, and reconstructive procedures, this reference studies the surgical and nonsurgical evaluation and management of various disorders affecting female urinary and pelvic health-collecting valuable recommendations, guidelines, and best practices from over 100 skilled authorities for expert guidance in the treatment of urinary incontinence, pelvic organ prolapse, and other dysfunctions.

CODE
http://rapidshare.com/files/3317303/Female_Urology.rar


Handbook IMCI Integrated Management of Childhood Illness


The WHO/UNICEF guidelines for Integrated Management of Childhood Illness offer simple and effective methods to prevent and manage the leading causes of serious illness and mortality in young children.The clinical guidelines promote evidence based assessment and treatment, using a syndromic approach that supports the rational, effective and affordable use of drugs.

The IMCI model handbook provides a detailed explanation of the IMCI case management guidelines. It is organized into seven main parts: overview of the IMCI process; assess and classify the sick child age 2 months up to 5 years; assess and classify the sick young infant age 1 week up to 2 months; identify treatment; treat the sick child or the sick young infant; communicate and counsel; and give follow-up care.

The IMCI charts and related in-service training materials, provided in this handbook are considered to be a generic version. The WHO Department of Child and Adolescent Health and Development created this handbook to help teaching institutions incorporate IMCI into academic programmes for doctors, nurses and other health professionals.

Teaching institutions are advised to adapt the handbook in two ways: (1) to ensure that all text, charts and illustrations are consistent with nationally-adapted IMCI clinical guidelines, and (2) to ensure that its content and format corresponds to the teaching approach used by the institution.
CODE
http://rapidshare.com/files/3337944/Handbook_Imci_Childhood_Illness.pdf

or

http://depositfiles.com/files/373690


Peterson's Principals of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery 2 Vol. set


Peterson's Principles of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery, Second Edition", encompasses a wide range of diverse topics making it a unique text amongst the medical and dental specialties. The purpose of this concise, easy-to-read two-volume text is to provide an authoritative and currently referenced survey of the specialty of Oral and Maxillofacial Surgery. It contains the necessary information for clinicians, and is an ideal reference text for preparation for board certification in the specialty.
CODE
http://rapidshare.com/files/3355885/Peterson_Principles_Oral_Maxillofacial_Surg.part1.rar
http://rapidshare.com/files/3366772/Peterson_Principles_Oral_Maxillofacial_Surg.part2.rar
http://rapidshare.com/files/3410888/Peterson_Principles_Oral_Maxillofacial_Surg.part3.rar

or

http://depositfiles.com/files/374896
http://depositfiles.com/files/374897
http://depositfiles.com/files/374898



Medical Students Guide to the Plain Chest Film


This book is designed to provide the medical student a simple yet systemized approach to interpreting the plain chest radiograph. The book teaches the normal anatomy as well as a systematic approach that can (and should) be used to evaluate every chest film. Full-color volume-rendered computed tomography (CT) images are used to help the student understand the anatomy.


CODE
http://rapidshare.com/files/4521514/Medical_Students_Guide_to_the_Plain_Chest_Film.rar


or

CODE
http://depositfiles.com/files/406811


or

CODE
http://fileho.com/download/6040cf979155/Medical-Students-Guide-to-the-Plain-Chest-Film.rar.html


Microbiology Demystified (Demystified)


The high demand for nurses and other medical professionals has resulted in a dramatic enrollment increase in nursing schools and colleges who offer medical training. All these students are required to pass a course in microbiology, which tends to trip up many students. The proposed book will demystify the complex topic of microbiology in a way that students will gain the necessary skills required for several different branches of the medical profession.


CODE
http://www.ftp2share.com/file/11447/0071446508.rar.html

canada4all
US medical Series
CODE
http://rapidshare.com/users/4WPRBN
canada4all
Code Words, ETC Nursing
To assess the postpartum pt. think BUBBLE

B-breast
U-uterus
B-Bowels
B-bonding
L-lochia
E-episiotomy

S/E of Pitocin

P= pressure is elevated
I= intake and output
T= tetanic contractions
O=O2 decreases in fetus
C=cardiac arrhythmia
I=Irregularity in fetal heart rate
N=N/V

INTRAUTERINE DEVICES (IUD) - complications

P - Period late; abnormal spotting or bleeding
A - Abdominal pain; pain with coitus
I - Infection exposure, abnormal vaginal discharge
N - Not feeling well, fever or chills
S - String missing, shorter or longer

POSPARTUM COMPLICATIONS: Ms.PITCH
M=mastitis
S=subinvolution

P=pulmonary embolism
I=infection
T=thrombophlebitis
C=cystitis
H=hematoma

SPECIAL assessment for Mastitis, pospartum complication
S=swelling
P=pain
E=elevated temperature
C=complain of flu like symptoms
I=infxn
A=and
L=localized heat



Labels: mnemonics in nursing


The RN Contract Trap

For many foreign nurses (RNs) the chance to immigrate to the U.S. is the opportunity of a life time. For so many, immigrating to the U.S. is the reason they went to nursing school and took up the profession. Many others, such as marketing majors, physicians, computer engineers, etc. have switched professions to become nurses in order to immigrate to the U.S.

The shortage spurred the growth and creation of hybrid industries such as nurse registries and temporary nursing staff companies. These types of companies assign nurses on a temporary basis with their client hospitals, medical facilities, and private homes.

A nurse working for one of these companies for example, might find herself working at Hospital A for 2 days out of the week and Hospital B for 3 days. Then, a few months later, working 4 days for Hospital C. The RN goes wherever her employer has been contracted to provide services. She is not an employee of the hospital, but rather the registry company.

Because of the shortage, various RN employers (hospitals, agencies, RN staffing companies) heavily recruit for RNs overseas. Foreign RNs who wish to immigrate are delighted at the opportunity the recruiters offer and are often all too eager to sign up.

While this path may be one of the easiest ways to immigrate, it is not without its pitfalls. Employment-based sponsorship means the RN will be allowed to immigrate if the RN intends to work on a permanent basis for the petitioning employer. This is a critical condition of immigrating that carries consequences if not fulfilled.

During the typical recruitment process, the RNs are promised sponsorship in exchange for working for the employer. Contracts are prepared and representations are made regarding the nature of work, type of work, place of work, working conditions and wages. Many RNs are so eager to immigrate, they do not carefully read these contractual documents, ask serious questions regarding the terms and conditions, or have the contracts reviewed by their own attorney.

In the excitement of the prospect of immigrating to the U.S. many RNs are seduced with the notion that the dream job awaits them in the U.S. For some this is true, but for many, it has drastic consequences. The RNs gloss over the contracts and assume an attitude of, “I’ll deal with it later.”

The most common contractual clause that wreaks havoc on an immigrating RN’s life is the breach of contract damages clause. Most contracts typically require the RN to work for a specific number of years and failure to do so triggers the damages clause. The damages can range from $15,00 to $50,000 dollars!

Many RNs signing these contracts are unfamiliar with the litigious culture in the U.S. Some come to the U.S. and find the working conditions and salaries they were told they would receive are not the same as represented when first recruited. Some conditions are so unbearable.

For example, being placed in graveyard shifts in hospitals far from home. Or, not being placed in any hospital and collecting no salary while the sponsor tries to obtain a new client for the RNs placement. Many of these RNs then leave their employers and this is when additional tragedy strikes.

The employer begins a campaign of harassment and may sue for breach of contract and obtains a judgment against the RN for the penalty amount. The judgment typically comes with a wage garnishment order. This means the RN’s new employer is required to pay a portion of the RN’s wages to the sponsor to cover the judgment. Because RNs are in a licensed occupation requiring a reporting of where they work, it is very simple for the sponsor to locate the RN and exact the judgment.

But, worse than a breach of contract is the possible immigration consequence. The RN has obtained permanent residency because she stated she intends to work on a permanent basis for her sponsor. By leaving or changing employers shortly after entering the U.S., she has now opened the door for the Immigration Service to revoke the green card! Some employers immediately notify the Immigration Service when an RN leaves exposing the RN to possible green card revocation and deportation.

For many others, the immigration consequence comes several years later when the RN is applying for U.S. citizenship. The Immigration Service reviews the basis of the green card and determines how long the RN worked for her sponsor. If it determines that the RN has only worked for a short period of time, it may begin revocation and deportation proceedings against both the RN and her family members who obtained green cards through her.

These tragic consequences can be avoided by careful review in the beginning. For many of those currently in the position, there is still immigration and contractual relief available. The U.S. Constitution prohibits slavery and indentured servitude and because in many cases the sponsoring employer breaches the contract, the employee is not liable for any damages. This core constitutional value is the basis for providing relief to those forced to leave their sponsors. This will be the subject of our second part of this article.

Author's Note: The analysis and suggestions offered in this column do not create a lawyer-client relationship and are not a substitute for the individual legal research and personalized representation that is essential to every case.



Labels: US Immigration, USRN, Visa, visa news, work abroad


mnemonics

For glaucoma:
C- close angle glaucoma
H- halo vision
O- open angle glaucoma
P- peripheral vision loss/ tunnel vision


S/S that may be associated with child 'CANCER'

C=continued unexplained wt. loss
H=headaches,often with vomiting at night or early morning
I=increased swelling, persistent pain in bones,joints back,legs
L=lump or mass, ( abdomen,neck,chest,pelvic,armpits)
D=development of excessive bruising,bleeding and rash

C=constant infxn.
A=a whitish color behind the pupil
N=nausea wich persist or vomiting w/o nausea
C=constant tiredness or noticeable paleness
E=eye or vision changes
R=recurrent fever of unknown origin

Muscuskletal Tx. prices/rice

P= pressure
R=rest
I=ice
C=compression
E=elevation
S=support

R=rest
I=ice
C=compression
E=elevation


Assistive devices -- Canes:

C Cane
O Opposite
A Affected
L Leg

CHOLECYCTITIS/CHOLELITHIASIS, remember 5 F's

F - female
F - forty (40 yr olds)
F - Fat (obesity)
F - Fried foods
F - Fertile (with increased risk in pregnancy)

Pulmonary Edema tx= MAD DOG:

M=Morphine
A=aminophylline
D=digoxin

D=diuretic
O=O2
G=Gases (ABG's)


REMEMBER: PNEUMONIA

P - Position for Comfort
N - Nutritional Support
E - Ensure Proper Sputum Disposal
U - Use Isolation Technique
M - Many Cultures
O - Omit Going to Public Places
N - No Smoking
I - Inverse Oral Fluids
A - Antibiotics

Care Management for MYASTHENIA GRAVIS

G - Go check muscle Strength
R - Respiratory monitoring
A - Anticholinesterase drugs
V - Ventilatory Support
I - Instruct to avoid stress
S - See for crisis
a.) Myasthenic Crisis
b.) Cholinergic Crisis
C.) Brittle Crisis

Signs of a Cholinergic Crisis, think SLUD:

S Salivation
L Lacrimation
U Urination
D Defication


Common causes for increased levels of bilirubin: HOT LIVER

H=hemolysis
O= obstruction
T=tumor
L=liver dse.

Pylori treatment regimen: TOMB

T=tetracycline
O=omeprazole
M=metronidazole
B=bismuth

Symptoms of Hyperthyroidism: STING

S=sweating
T= tremors/tachycardia
I=intolerance to heat
N=nervousness
G=goiter and gastrointestinal ( loose stool /diarrhea)

A way to remember the eyes is:
You look OUt with Both eyes.
Take the Right dose so you won't OD [overdose].
The only one that is Left is OS.
Both eyes=OU, Right eye=OD, Left eye=OS


Diabetes

Hot and Dry : sugar high
Cold and clammy : need some candy

To remember side effects & adverse reactions to immunizations:

F- Fever
I- Itching
S- Stiffness
H- Headache
E- Edema
R- Redness
F- Fussy
L- Localized Tenderness
A- Appetite decrease
G- General Aches Pains

W- Wheezing
H- Hypotension
U- Uticaria
N- Nasal Decongestion
T- Tachycardia



Labels: mnemonics in nursing


mnemonics

12 cranial nerves:

Oh -olfactory
Oh -optic
Oh -ocuomotor
to -trochlear
touch -trigeminal
and -abducens
feel a -facial
very -vestibulocochlear
good -glossopharyngeal
victory -vagus
seems -spinal accessory
heaven -hypoglossal

S - SENSORY, M-MOTOR, B-BOTH S&M.

so.. the 12 CN will be..

O - SOME
O - SAYS
O - MAKE
T - MONEY
T - BUT
A - MY
F - BROTHER
A - SAYS
G - BIG
V - BOOBS
S - MAKES
H - MONEY


Labels: mnemonics in nursing

mnemonics

Mag Sulfate
( Sung to the tune of "Achy,Breaky Heart") Very Happy

Decreased BP,
Decreased Pee Pee,
These are toxic signs of Mag Sulfate.
Drop in respiratory rate,
Patellar reflex there ain't,
Give antidote calcium gluconate!


Antidotes:

In Heaven, there is Peace (Heparin - Protamine sulfate)
In War, there is Killing (Warfarin - Vit. K)


Spinal Meds: Little Boys Prefers Toys

Little - Lidocaine,
Boys - Bupivicaine,
Prefer - Procaine,
Toys - Tetracaine

Side effects of steroids. The 5 S's:
Sick- easier to get sick
Sad-causes depression
Sex-increases libido
Salt-retains more and causes weight gain
Sugar-raises blood sugar
canada4all
Sunday, December 28, 2008
Tonsillectomy

blade #12
5allis
2mixters
2bobcock
2cherries
2needle holde
1silk
CA set
10cc syringe
mouth ret
shoulder pad
st mary
cautery

at 6:33:00 AM 0 comments

Labels: OR

Thursday, December 18, 2008
culdocentesis

5cc syringe
g19 needle
posterior retractors
ovum forcep
small os
gloves
tenaculum
at 6:31:00 AM 0 comments

Labels: OR

Friday, December 5, 2008
Suprapubic Prostatectomy

ap set
cautery machine
big os
richardson
army navy
self retaining
aseptosyringe
allis
foley cath
narrow deaver
3way foley cath
10cc syringe



Labels: OR

Monday, December 1, 2008
Billiary bypass

ap set
chole set
army navy
richardson
wide deaver
narrow deaver
big os
rubber tubing
gloves
complete pack
mixter
adson
debakey
blade 10,20
urine bag
foley cath
metz, mayo
silk 3.0
chromic 3-0 cutting
vicryl 4-0


Labels: OR


Tracheostomy tube insertion

minor set
gowns wd drapes
prep bowl
cautery machine/tip
zen miller
blade #15
army nav
rubber tubing
mayo straight
t syringe
5cc"
silk
nylon 5.0
round/cutting needle
small os
gloves



Labels: OR


explore lap (ectopic preg)

ochsner curve
bob cock
cs set
complete pack
big os
visceral pack
free tie
richardson
army navy
blade 10,20
foley cath
urine bag
sutures chromic 2-0 at
vicryl at
plain 2.0 na
vicryl 3.0 at


Labels: OR

Saturday, November 15, 2008
herniorrhaphy

ap set
bb richardson
army navy
rubber tubing
metz, mayo st
gloves
sutures
silk 2.0 strands
plain 2-0 at
vicryl 4-0 cutting



Labels: OR

Monday, November 10, 2008
explore lap (ob case)

complete pack
cs set
gloves
sutures
spinal set
spinal anesthesia
spinal needle
prep bowl
foley cath
urine bag
blade 10,20
big os
suction tip
rubber tubing
kick bucket
powder
mayo st, curve; metz
towel clip
visceral pack



Labels: OR

Wednesday, November 5, 2008
explore lap (surgery)

complete pack
ap set
gloves
spinal set
spinal anesthesia
spinal needle
skin prep bowl
foley cath
urine bag
blade #10,20
big OS
suction tip
rubber tubing
kick bucket
powder
mayo st, curve
metz
towel clip
cautery machine/tip
suction machine



Labels: OR

Gastrostomy

minor set
baby richardson
bob cock
gloves
eye sheet
square drape
foley cath
blade #15
free tie


Labels: OR


Sample Question 3

41. A nurse is observing a child’s motor, sensory and speech development. The child is 7 months old. Which of the following tasks would generally not be observed?

A: Child recognizes tone of voice.

B: Child exhibits fear of strangers.

C: Child pulls to stand and occasionally bounces.

D: Child plays patty-cake and imitates.

42. A nurse is observing a child’s motor, sensory and speech development. The child is 5 months old. Which of the following tasks would generally not be observed?

A: Child sits with support.

B: Child laughs out loud.

C: Child shifts weight side to side in prone.

D: Child transfers objects between hands.

43. A nurse is caring for an adult that has recently been diagnosed with renal failure. Which of the following clinical signs would most likely not be present?

A: Hypotension

B: Heart failure

C: Dizziness

D: Memory loss

44. A nurse is caring for an adult that has recently been diagnosed with hypokalemia. Which of the following clinical signs would most likely not be present?

A: Leg cramps

B: Respiratory distress

C: Confusion

D: Flaccid paralysis

45. A nurse is caring for an adult that has recently been diagnosed with metabolic acidosis. Which of the following clinical signs would most likely not be present?

A: Weakness

B: Dysrhythmias

C: Dry skin

D: Malaise

46. A nurse is caring for an adult that has recently been diagnosed with metabolic alkalosis. Which of the following clinical signs would most likely not be present?

A: Vomiting

B: Diarrhea

C: Agitation

D: Hyperventilation

47. A nurse is caring for an adult that has recently been diagnosed with respiratory acidosis. Which of the following clinical signs would most likely not be present?

A: CO2 Retention

B: Dyspnea

C: Headaches

D: Tachypnea

48. A nurse is caring for an adult that has recently been diagnosed with respiratory alkalosis. Which of the following clinical signs would most likely not be present?

A: Anxiety attacks

B: Dizziness

C: Hyperventilation cyanosis

D: Blurred vision

49. A nurse is reviewing a patient’s medication list. The drug Pentoxifylline is present on the list. Which of the following conditions is commonly treated with this medication?

A: COPD B: CAD

C: PVD

D: MS

50. A patient has been on long-term management for CHF. Which of the following drugs is considered a loop dieuretic that could be used to treat CHF symptoms?

A: Ciprofloxacin

B: Lepirudin

C: Naproxen

D: Bumex

51. A patient has recently been diagnosed with polio and has questions about the diagnosis. Which of the following systems is most affected by polio?

A: PNS

B: CNS

C: Urinary system

D: Cardiac system

52. A nurse is educating a patient about right-sided heart deficits. Which of the following clinical signs is not associated with right-sided heart deficits?

A: Orthopnea

B: Dependent edema

C: Ascites

D: Nocturia

53. A nurse is reviewing a patient’s medication. Which of the following is considered a potassium sparing dieuretic?

A: Esidrix

B: Lasix

C: Aldactone

D: Edecrin

54. A nurse is reviewing a patient’s medication. The patient is taking Digoxin. Which of the following is not an effect of Digoxin?

A: Depressed HR

B: Increased CO

C: Increased venous pressure

D: Increased contractility of cardiac muscle

55. A patient has been instructed by the doctor to reduce their intake of Potassium. Which types of foods should not worry about avoiding?

A: Bananas

B: Tomatoes

C: Orange juice

D: Apples

56. A patient’s chart indicates the patient is suffering from Digoxin toxicity. Which of the following clinical signs is not associated with digoxin toxicity?

A: Ventricular bigeminy

B: Anorexia

C: Normal ventricular rhythm

D: Nausea

57. A fourteen year old male has just been admitted to your floor. He has a history of central abdominal pain that has moved to the right iliac fossa region. He also has tenderness over the region and a fever. Which of the following would you most likely suspect?

A: Appendicitis

B: Acute pancreatitis

C: Ulcerative colitis

D: Cholecystitis

58. A thirteen-year old male has a tender lump area in his left groin. His abdomen is distended and he has been vomiting for the past 24 hours. Which of the following would you most like suspect?

A: Ulcerative colitis

B: Biliary colic

C: Acute gastroenteritis

D: Strangulated hernia

59. Which of the following is the key risk factor for development of Parkinson’s disease dementia?

A: History of strokes

B: Acute headaches history

C: Edward’s syndrome

D: Use of phenothiazines

60. A father notifies your clinic that his son’s homeroom teacher has just been diagnosed with meningitis and his son spent the day with the teacher in detention yesterday. Which of the following would be the most likely innervention?

A: Isolation of the son

B: Treatment of the son with Aciclovir

C: Treatment of the son with Rifampicin

D: Reassure the father

61. A patient has recently been diagnosed with hyponatremia. Which of the following is not associated with hyponatremia?

A: Muscle twitching

B: Anxiety

C: Cyanosis

D: Sticky mucous membranes

62. A patient has recently been diagnosed with hypernatremia. Which of the following is not associated with hypernatremia?

A: Hypotension

B: Tachycardia

C: Pitting edema

D: Weight gain

63. Which of the following normal blood therapeutic concentrations is abnormal?

A: Phenobarbital 10-40 mcg/ml

B: Lithium .6 – 1.2 mEq/L

C: Digoxin .5 – 1.6 ng/ml

D: Valproic acid 40 – 100 mcg/ml

64. Which of the following normal blood therapeutic concentrations is abnormal?

A: Digitoxin 09 – 25 mcg/ml

B: Vancomycin 05 – 15 mcg/ml

C: Primidone 02 – 14 mcg/ml

D: Theophylline 10 – 20 mcg/ml

65. Which of the following normal blood therapeutic concentrations is abnormal?

A: Phenytoin 10 – 20 mcg/ml

B: Quinidine 02 – 06 mcg/ml

C: Haloperidol 05 – 20 ng/ml

D: Carbamazepine 5 – 25 mcg/ml



Labels: NCLEX QnA

Tuesday, October 7, 2008
Answer Key 2

21. (cool.gif Discharge education begins upon admit.
22. (cool.gif Initiative vs. guilt- 3-6 years old
23. (A) Trust vs. Mistrust- 12-18 months old
24. (D) Intimacy vs. isolation- 18-35 years old
25. (cool.gif HR and Respirations are slightly increased. BP is down.
26. (A) Elavil is a tricyclic antidepressant.
27. (D) Erythromycin is used to treat conditions A-C.
28. (D) Answer choices A-C were symptoms of acute hyperkalemia.
29. © Weight loss would be expected.
30. (A) Loss of appetite would be expected.
31. (D) Choice A is linked to Plague, Choice B is linked to peptic ulcers, Choice C is linked to Cholera.
32. (A) Choice B is linked to Rheumatic fever, Choice C is linked to Anthrax, Choice D is linked to Endocarditis.
33. (D) A CT scan would be performed for further investigation of the hemiparesis.
34. © Weight gain and poor temperature tolerance indicate something may be wrong with the thyroid function.
35. © Blood cultures would be performed to investigate the fever and rash symptoms.
36. (A) With a history of diabetes, the first response should be to check blood sugar levels.
37. © Age is not the greatest factor in potty training. The overall mental and physical abilities of the child is the most important factor.
38. © The poison control center will have an exact plan of action for this child.
39. © Vastus lateralis is the most appropriate location.
40. (D) In this case you are able to determine the name of the child by the father’s statement, moreover you should not withhold the medication from the child following identification.



Labels: NCLEX QnA

Tuesday, September 30, 2008
mnemonics

To remember the clinical findings associated w/UTI think urinary tract is FULL of infection:

F-frequent urge to void
U-urine that is foul smelling and cloudy
L-low grade fever
L-lethargy


No P No K.

If the patient isn't peeing, they are probably retaining potassium, therefore they shouldn't be getting it.

Nursing Considerations for renal failure --KIDNEY:

K - Keeping fluid balance
I - Inspecting the skin for Pruritus
D - Dietary Instructions
N - No to Acidosis
E - Electrolyte imbalance maintainance
Y - Your blood counts

ASSESSMENT on dehydration

D=dry skin & mucous membrane
E=eyeball/fontannel sunken
H=hypotension
Y= you feel coolness/mottling of the extremeties
D=delayed capillary filling time
R= response to stimuli/LOC changes
A= absence of tears
T=tachycardia
I=increase urine specific gravity
O=oliguria
N=no/loss skin turgor and elasticity



Labels: mnemonics in nursing

Monday, September 29, 2008
Sample Question 2

21. A 65 year old man has been admitted to the hospital for spinal stenosis surgery. When does the discharge training and planning begin for this patient?

A: Following surgery

B: Upon admit

C: Within 48 hours of discharge

D: Preoperative discussion

22. A child is 5 years old and has been recently admitted into the hospital. According to Erickson which of the following stages is the child in?

A: Trust vs. mistrust

B: Initiative vs. guilt

C: Autonomy vs. shame

D: Intimacy vs. isolation

23. A toddler is 16 months old and has been recently admitted into the hospital. According to Erickson which of the following stages is the toddler in?

A: Trust vs. mistrust

B: Initiative vs. guilt

C: Autonomy vs. shame

D: Intimacy vs. isolation

24. A young adult is 20 years old and has been recently admitted into the hospital. According to Erickson which of the following stages is the adult in?

A: Trust vs. mistrust

B: Initiative vs. guilt

C: Autonomy vs. shame

D: Intimacy vs. isolation

25. A nurse is making rounds taking vital signs. Which of the following vital signs is abnormal?

A: 11 year old male – 90 b.p.m, 22 resp/min. , 100/70 mm Hg

B: 13 year old female – 105 b.p.m., 22 resp/min., 105/60 mm Hg

C: 5 year old male- 102 b.p.m, 24 resp/min., 90/65 mm Hg

D: 6 year old female- 100 b.p.m., 26 resp/min., 90/70mm Hg

26. When you are taking a patient’s history, she tells you she has been depressed and is dealing with an anxiety disorder. Which of the following medications would the patient most likely be taking?

A: Elavil

B: Calcitonin

C: Pergolide

D: Verapamil

27. Which of the following conditions would a nurse not administer erythromycin?

A: Campylobacterial infection

B: Legionnaire’s disease

C: Pneumonia

D: Multiple Sclerosis

28. A patient’s chart indicates a history of hyperkalemia. Which of the following would you not expect to see with this patient if this condition were acute?

A: Decreased HR

B: Paresthesias

C: Muscle weakness of the extremities

D: Migranes

29. A patient’s chart indicates a history of ketoacidosis. Which of the following would you not expect to see with this patient if this condition were acute?

A: Vomiting

B: Extreme Thirst

C: Weight gain

D: Acetone breath smell

30. A patient’s chart indicates a history of meningitis. Which of the following would you not expect to see with this patient if this condition were acute?

A: Increased appetite

B: Vomiting

C: Fever

D: Poor tolerance of light

31. A nurse if reviewing a patient’s chart and notices that the patient suffers from conjunctivitis. Which of the following microorganisms is related to this condition?

A: Yersinia pestis

B: Helicobacter pyroli

C: Vibrio cholera

D: Hemophilus aegyptius

32. A nurse if reviewing a patient’s chart and notices that the patient suffers from Lyme disease. Which of the following microorganisms is related to this condition?

A: Borrelia burgdorferi

B: Streptococcus pyrogens

C: Bacilus anthracis

D: Enterococcus faecalis

33. A fragile 87 year-old female has recently been admitted to the hospital with increased confusion and falls over last 2 weeks. She is also noted to have a mild left hemiparesis. Which of the following tests is most likely to be performed?

A: FBC (full blood count)

B: ECG (electrocardiogram)

C: Thyroid function tests

D: CT scan

34. A 84 year-old male has been loosing mobility and gaining weight over the last 2 months. The patient also has the heater running in his house 24 hours a day, even on warm days. Which of the following tests is most likely to be performed?

A: FBC (full blood count)

B: ECG (electrocardiogram)

C: Thyroid function tests

D: CT scan

35. A 20 year-old female attending college is found unconscious in her dorm room. She has a fever and a noticeable rash. She has just been admitted to the hospital. Which of the following tests is most likely to be performed first?

A: Blood sugar check

B: CT scan

C: Blood cultures

D: Arterial blood gases

36. A 28 year old male has been found wandering around in a confused pattern. The male is sweaty and pale. Which of the following tests is most likely to be performed first?

A: Blood sugar check

B: CT scan

C: Blood cultures

D: Arterial blood gases

37. A mother is inquiring about her child’s ability to potty train. Which of the following factors is the most important aspect of toilet training?

A: The age of the child

B: The child ability to understand instruction.

C: The overall mental and physical abilities of the child.

D: Frequent attempts with positive reinforcement.

38. A parent calls the pediatric clinic and is frantic about the bottle of cleaning fluid her child drank 20 minutes. Which of the following is the most important instruction the nurse can give the parent?

A: This too shall pass.

B: Take the child immediately to the ER

C: Contact the Poison Control Center quickly

D: Give the child syrup of ipecac

39. A nurse is administering a shot of Vitamin K to a 30 day-old infant. Which of the following target areas is the most appropriate?

A: Gluteus maximus

B: Gluteus minimus

C: Vastus lateralis

D: Vastus medialis

40. A nurse has just started her rounds delivering medication. A new patient on her rounds is a 4 year-old boy who is non-verbal. This child does not have on any identification. What should the nurse do?

A: Contact the provider

B: Ask the child to write their name on paper.

C: Ask a co-worker about the identification of the child.

D: Ask the father who is in the room the child’s name.


Labels: NCLEX QnA

Wednesday, September 24, 2008
Answer key 1

1. (A) and (cool.gif are both contraindicated with pregnancy.
2. (F) All of the others have can cause photosensitivity reactions.
3. (D) All of the others can cause urine discoloration.
4. (A) Corgard could be removed from the refigerator.
5. (D) IgG is the only immunoglobulin that can cross the placental barrier.
6. (cool.gif AZT treatment is the most critical innervention.
7. © Autonomic neuropathy can cause inability to urinate.
8. (cool.gif All of the clinical signs and systems point to a condition of anorexia nervosa.
9. (cool.gif Hypercalcaemia can cause polyuria, severe abdominal pain, and confusion.
10. © Rho gam prevents the production of anti-RH antibodies in the mother that has a Rh positive fetus.
11. (D) The effects of PKU stay with the infant throughout their life.
12. (D) Aspirin overdose can lead to metabolic acidosis and cause pulmonary edema development.
13. (D) This patient’s safety is your primary concern.
14. © The bronchodilator will allow a more productive cough.
15. (cool.gif Weight gain is associated with CHF and congenital heart deficits.
16. © The skin would be dry and not oily.
17. (A) Streptokinase is a clot busting drug and the best choice in this situation.
18. (A) Green vegetables and liver are a great source of folic acid.
19. (D) Cl. difficile has not been linked to meningitis.
20. (D) RBC’s last for 120 days in the body.


Labels: NCLEX QnA

Saturday, September 20, 2008
Sample Question1

1. A nurse is reviewing a patient’s medication during shift change. Which of the following medication would be contraindicated if the patient were pregnant? Note: More than one answer may be correct.
A: Coumadin
B: Finasteride
C: banned
D: Catapress
E: Habitrol
F: Clofazimine
2. A nurse is reviewing a patient’s PMH. The history indicates photosensitive reactions to medications. Which of the following drugs has not been associated with photosensitive reactions? Note: More than one answer may be correct.
A: Cipro
B: Sulfonamide
C: Noroxin
D: Bactrim
E: ban me!
F: Nitrodur
3. A patient tells you that her urine is starting to look discolored. If you believe this change is due to medication, which of the following patient’s medication does not cause urine discoloration?
A: Sulfasalazine
B: Levodopa
C: Phenolphthalein
D: Aspirin
4. You are responsible for reviewing the nursing unit’s refrigerator. If you found the following drug in the refrigerator it should be removed from the refrigerator’s contents?
A: Corgard
B: Humulin (injection)
C: Urokinase
D: Epogen (injection)
5. A 34 year old female has recently been diagnosed with an autoimmune disease. She has also recently discovered that she is pregnant. Which of the following is the only immunoglobulin that will provide protection to the fetus in the womb?
A: IgA
B: IgD
C: IgE
D: IgG
6. A second year nursing student has just suffered a needlestick while working with a patient that is positive for AIDS. Which of the following is the most important action that nursing student should take?
A: Immediately see a social worker
B: Start prophylactic AZT treatment
C: Start prophylactic Pentamide treatment
D: Seek counseling
7. A thirty five year old male has been an insulin-dependent diabetic for five years and now is unable to urinate. Which of the following would you most likely suspect?
A: Atherosclerosis
B: Diabetic nephropathy
C: Autonomic neuropathy
D: Somatic neuropathy
8. You are taking the history of a 14 year old girl who has a (BMI) of 18. The girl reports inability to eat, induced vomiting and severe constipation. Which of the following would you most likely suspect?
A: Multiple sclerosis
B: Anorexia nervosa
C: Bulimia
D: Systemic sclerosis
9. A 24 year old female is admitted to the ER for confusion. This patient has a history of a myeloma diagnosis, constipation, intense abdominal pain, and polyuria. Which of the following would you most likely suspect?
A: Diverticulosis
B: Hypercalcaemia

C: Hypocalcaemia

D: Irritable bowel syndrome

10. Rho gam is most often used to treat____ mothers that have a ____ infant.

A: RH positive, RH positive

B: RH positive, RH negative

C: RH negative, RH positive

D: RH negative, RH negative

11. A new mother has some questions about (PKU). Which of the following statements made by a nurse is not correct regarding PKU?

A: A Guthrie test can check the necessary lab values.

B: The urine has a high concentration of phenylpyruvic acid

C: Mental deficits are often present with PKU.

D: The effects of PKU are reversible.

12. A patient has taken an overdose of aspirin. Which of the following should a nurse most closely monitor for during acute management of this patient?

A: Onset of pulmonary edema

B: Metabolic alkalosis

C: Respiratory alkalosis

D: Parkinson’s disease type symptoms

13. A fifty-year-old blind and deaf patient has been admitted to your floor. As the charge nurse your primary responsibility for this patient is?

A: Let others know about the patient’s deficits

B: Communicate with your supervisor your concerns about the patient’s deficits.

C: Continuously update the patient on the social environment.

D: Provide a secure environment for the patient.

14. A patient is getting discharged from a SNF facility. The patient has a history of severe COPD and PVD. The patient is primarily concerned about their ability to breath easily. Which of the following would be the best instruction for this patient?

A: Deep breathing techniques to increase O2 levels.

B: Cough regularly and deeply to clear airway passages.

C: Cough following bronchodilator utilization

D: Decrease CO2 levels by increase oxygen take output during meals.

15. A nurse is caring for an infant that has recently been diagnosed with a congenital heart defect. Which of the following clinical signs would most likely be present?

A: Slow pulse rate

B: Weight gain

C: Decreased systolic pressure

D: Irregular WBC lab values

16. A mother has recently been informed that her child has Down’s syndrome. You will be assigned to care for the child at shift change. Which of the following characteristics is not associated with Down’s syndrome?

A: Simian crease

B: Brachycephaly

C: Oily skin

D: Hypotonicity

17. A patient has recently experienced a (MI) within the last 4 hours. Which of the following medications would most like be administered?

A: Streptokinase

B: Atropine

C: Acetaminophen

D: Coumadin

18. A patient asks a nurse, “My doctor recommended I increase my intake of folic acid. What type of foods contain folic acids?”

A: Green vegetables and liver

B: Yellow vegetables and red meat

C: Carrots

D: Milk

19. A nurse is putting together a presentation on meningitis. Which of the following microorganisms has noted been linked to meningitis in humans?

A: S. pneumonia

B: H. influenza

C: N. meningitis

D: Cl. difficile

20. A nurse is administering blood to a patient who has a low hemoglobin count. The patient asks how long to RBC’s last in my body? The correct response is.

A: The life span of RBC is 45 days.

B: The life span of RBC is 60 days.

C: The life span of RBC is 90 days.

D: The life span of RBC is 120 days.



Labels: NCLEX QnA

Friday, September 12, 2008
Definition of a Root Word III

N
nas/o nose
nat/o birth
necr/o death
nephr/o kidney
neur/o nerve
noct/i night
O
ocul/o eye
olig/o few
omphal/o navel
onc/o tumor
onych/o nail
oophor/o ovary
ophthalm/o eye
opt/o vision
orchid/o testicle
orch/o testicle
organ/o organ
or/o mouth
orth/o straight
oste/o bone
ot/o ear
ox/i oxygen
P
pachy/o thick
palat/o palate
pancreat/o pancreas
par/o labor
patell/o patella
path/o disease
pelv/i pelvis
perine/o peritoneum
petr/o stone
phalang/o pharynx
phas/o speech
phleb/o vein
phot/o light
phren/o mind
plasm/o plasma
pleur/o pleura
pneumon/o lung
poli/o gray matter
polyp/o small growth
poster/o posterior
prim/i first
proct/o rectum
proxim/o proximal
pseud/o fake
psych/o mind
pub/o pubis
puerper/o childbirth
pulmon/o lung
pupill/o pupil
pyel/o renal pelvis
pylor/o pylorus
py/o pus
Q
quadr/i four
R
rachi/o spinal
radic/o nerve
radi/o radius
rect/o rectum
ren/o kidney
retin/o retina
rhabd/o striated
rhytid/o wrinkles
rhiz/o nerve
S
sacr/o sacrum
scapul/o scapula
scler/o sclera
scoli/o curved
seb/o sebum
sept/o septum
sial/o saliva
sinus/o sinus
somat/o body
son/o sound
spermat/o sperm
spir/o breathe
splen/o spleen
spondyl/o vertebra
staped/o stapes
staphyl/o clusters
stern/o sternum
steth/o chest
stomat/o mouth
strept/o chain-like
super/o superior
synovi/o synovia
T
tars/o tarsal
ten/o tendon
test/o testicle
therm/o heat
thorac/o thorax
thromb/o clot
thym/o thymus
thyroid/o thyroid gland
tibi/o tibia
tom/o pressure
tonsill/o tonsils
toxic/o poison
trachel/o trachea
trich/o hair
tympan/o eardrum
U
uln/o ulna
ungu/o nail
ureter/o ureter
urethr/o urethra
ur/o urine
uter/o uterus
uvul/o uvula
V
vagin/o vagina
valv/o valve
vas/o vessel
ven/o vein
ventricul/o ventricle
ventro/o frontal
vertebr/o vertebra
vesic/o bladder
vesicul/o seminal vesicle



Labels: MS Lec

Friday, September 5, 2008
mnemonics

ASSESSTMENT FOR:

HYPOCALCEMIA = CATS

C=convulsion
A=arythmias
T=tetany
S=spasm and stridor

HYPERNATREMIA = SALT FRIED

S=skin flushed ( fever)
A=agitation
L=low grade fever
T=thirst

also,
F=fever (low grade) flushed skin
R=restless ,irritable
I= increased fluid retention,increased BP
E= edema
D= decreased urinary output

HYPONATREMIA = SALT LOSS

S=stupor/coma
A=anorexia,n/v
L=lethargy
T=tendon reflex decreased

also,
L= limp muscle(weakness)
O=orthostatic hypotension
S=seizure/headache
S=stomach cramping

HYPERKALEMIA = MACHINE

M=medication(ACE inhibitors,NSAIDS)
A=acidosis(metabolic,respiratory)
C=cellular destruction(burns,traumatic injury)
H=hypoaldosteron,hemolysis
I= intake -excessive
N=nephrons,renal failure
E=excretion impaired


Labels: mnemonics in nursing

Wednesday, September 3, 2008
Definition of a Root Word II

F
femor/o femur
fet/i fetus
fet/o fetus
fibr/o fibrous tissue
fibul/o fibula
G
ganglion/o ganglion
gastr/o stomach
gingiv/o gum
glomerul/o glomerulus
gloss/o tongue
glyc/o sugar
gnos/o knowledge
gravid/o pregnancy
gynec/o woman
H
hem/o blood
hepat/o liver
herni/o hernia
heter/o other
hidr/o sweat
hist/o tissue
humer/o humerus
hydr/o water
hymen/o hymen
hyster/o uterus
I
ile/o ileum
ili/o ilium
irid/o iris
iri/o iris
ischi/o ischium
ischo/o blockage
J
jejun/o jejunum
K
kal/i potassium
kary/o nucleus
kerat/o hard
kinesi/o motion
kyph/o hump
L
lacrim/o tear duct
lact/o milk
lamin/o lamina
lapar/o abdomen
later/o lateral
lei/o smooth
leuk/o white
lingu/o tongue
lip/o fat
lith/o stone
lob/o lob/o
lord/o flexed forward
lumb/o lumbar
lymph/o lymph
M
mamm/o breast
mandibul/o mandible
mast/o breast
mastoid/o mastoid
maxill/o maxilla
meat/o opening
melan/o black
mening/o meninges
menisc/o meniscus
men/o menstruation
ment/o mind
metr/i uterus
metr/o uterus
mon/o one
muc/o mucus
myc/o fungus
myel/o spinal cord
my/o muscle



Labels: MS Lec

Saturday, August 30, 2008
mnemonics

When a child has a cyanotic heart defect,check for the
"4'C's"

C-cyanosis,especially increasing with crying
C-crabbiness or irritability
C-clubbing of digits
C-crouching or squating,which increase systemic venous return,shunt blood from extremeties to the head and trunk and decrease cyanosis

S/S OF MI(myocardial infarction)- think of DANCE PAD....

D-dyspnea
A-anxiety
N-nausea/vomiting
C-crushing substernal chestpain
E-elevated temp.

P-pallor
A-arrythmias
D-diaporesis

Immediate tx for MI remember MOAN (like when patient has that crushing chestpain, he'll moan!):
Morphine, Oxygen, ASA, Nitroglycerine

Mnemonic for remembering "antiarrhythmics" DRUGS

CLASS IA
procainamide = professor
quinidine = quackers
disopyramide= dissed/dismiss

CLASS IB
lidocaine = lydia's
phenytoin = penny
mexiletine = mexican
tocainide = tacos

CLASS IC
flecainide = feeling
propafenone= profaned

CLASS II
propanolol = proper
beta blockers = bertha butt

CLASS III
amiodarone = amiable
bretylium = british
solatol = socialite

CLASS IV
verapamil = virtually
diltiazem = dismembered 'im

READ AS: Pofessor Quackers"dissed" - Lydia's penny Mexican tacos. Feeling profaned,proper Bertha butt,(amiable British socialite), virtually dismembered 'im!

"Cardio selective"( A BEAM)

A= acebutolol
B=betaxolol
E=esmolol
A=atenolol
M=metoprolol

"Beta receptor activity"

one- heart two - lungs

Beta 1= primarily on heart

airway is Beta 2 receptors

Treatment of CHF, think UNLOAD FAST:

U sit Upright
N Nitro
L Lasix
O Oxygen
A Aminophylline
D Digoxin

F Fluids- decrease
A Afterload - decrease
S Sodium - decrease
T Tests: dig level, ABG, K+

5 T's of early Cyanosis

T= tetralogy,transposition,truncus,total anomalous,triscuspid atresia.

REMEMBER...for HYPERTENSION:

H - Health Education
Y - Your diet is concern (low caloric & low fat diet)
P - Pressure Monitoring
E - Exercise
R - Rest and Relaxation
T - Take Medication
E - Eliminate Salt
N - No Smoking
S - Stress Reducing Technique
I - Inhibit Coffee & Stimulants
O - Observe for Complications
N - Never Forget to Take Medication

Foods high in sodium:

P-processed foods
M-moo foods (dairy)
S- salty tasting



Labels: mnemonics in nursing

Friday, August 29, 2008
Definition of a Root Word I

A
abdomin/o abdomen
acou/o hearing
aden/o gland
adenoid/o adenoids
adren/o adrenal gland
alveol/o alveolus
amni/o amnion
andro/o male
angi/o vessel
ankly/o stiff
anter/o frontal
an/o anus
aponeur/o aponeurosis
appendic/o appendix
arche/o beginning
arteri/o artery
atri/o atrium
aur/i ear
aur/o ear
aut/o self
B
bacteri/o bacteria
balan/o glans penis
bi/o life
blephar/o eyelid
bronch/i bronchus
bronch/o bronchus
C
calc/i calcium
cancer/o cancer
carcin/o cancer
cardi/o heart
carp/o carpals
caud/o tail
cec/o cecum
celi/o abdomen
cephal/o head
cerebell/o cerebellum
cerebr/o cerebrum
cervic/o cervix
cheil/o lip
cholangi/o bile duct
chol/e gall
chondro/o cartilage
chori/o chorion
chrom/o color
clavic/o clavicle
col/o colon
colp/o vagina
core/o pupil
corne/o cornea
coron/o heart
cortic/o cortex
cor/o pupil
cost/o rib
crani/o cranium
cry/o cold
cutane/o skin
cyes/i pregnancy
cyst/o bladder
D
dacry/o tear
dermat/o skin
diaphragmat/o diaphragm
dipl/o double
dips/o thirst
dist/o distal
diverticul/o diverticulum
dors/o back
duoden/o duodenum
dur/o dura
E
ech/o sound
electr/o electricity
embry/o embryo
encephal/o brain
endocrin/o endocrine
enter/o intestine
epididym/o epididymis
epiglott/o epiglottis
episi/o vulva
epitheli/o epithelium
erythr/o red
esophag/o esophagus
esthesi/o sensation



Labels: MS Lec

Thursday, August 28, 2008
CS Set

complete pack
self ret
richardson
scissors: metz, mayo, bandage
suture: chromic 1 NA(non atro #2) 1st and 2nd layer
chromic 2.0 atromatic #1
plain 2.0 NA #1
vicryl 0 AT #1 (fascia)
dexon 4.0 #1 or vicryl 3.0 AT (skin)

8kelly curve
2kelly st
4allis
5towel clips
2needle holder
2blade holder
1tissue forcep
1thumb forcep
1bladder retractor
1 suture book



Labels: OR

Thursday, August 21, 2008
Prefixes

an- without
ante- before
bi- two
brady- slow
dia- through
dys- difficult
endo- within
epi- over
eu- normal
exo- outward
hemi- half
hyper- excessive
hypo- deficient
inter- between
intra- within
meta- change
multi- numerous
nulli- none
pan- total
para- beyond
per- through
peri- surrounding
post- after
pre- before
pro- before
sub- below
supra- superior
sym- join
syn- join
tachy- rapid
tetra- four
trans- through



Labels: MS Lec

Friday, August 15, 2008
Modified Radical Mastectomy

ap set
cautery machine
complete pack
baby richardson
army navy
allis
towel clips
gloves
blade 10
big OS
metz
mayo straight
big richardson
suture: silk 3-0, 2-0, vicyl 3-0



Labels: OR

Monday, August 11, 2008
Suffixes

-al pertaining to
-algia pain
-apheresis removal
-ary pertaining to
-asthenia weakness
-capnia carbon dioxide
-cele hernia
-clasia break
-clasis break
-crit separate
-cyte cell
-desis fusion
-drome run
-eal pertaining to
-ectasis expansion
-ectomy removal
-esis condition
-genesis cause
-genic pertaining to
-gram record
-graph recording device
-ial pertaining to
-iasis condition
-iatrist physician
-iatry specialty
-ic pertaining to
-ician one that
-ictal attack
-ior pertaining to
-ism condition of
-itis inflammation
-lysis separating
-malacia softening
-meter measure
-odynia pain
-oid resembling
-ology study
-oma tumor
-opia vision
-opsy view of
-orrhaphy repairing
-orrhea flow
-osis condition
-otomy cut into
-oxia oxygen
-paresis partial paralysis
-pathy disease
-pepsia digestion
-pexy suspension
-phagia swallowing, eating
-phobia excessive fear of
-phonia sound, voice
-physis growth
-plasia development
-plasm a growth
-plegia paralysis
-pnea breathing
-poiesis formation
-ptosis sagging
-salpinx fallopian tube
-sacoma malignant tumor
-schisis crack
-sclerosis hardening
-stasis standing
-stenosis narrowing
-thorax chest
-tocia labor, birth
-tome cutting device
-trophy develop
-uria urine


Labels: MS Lec

Obstetrics/Gynecology

Amniocentesis: Removal of some fluid surrounding the fetus for analysis. Fetus location is identified by US prior to the procedure. Results may take a month.

Used to check for: Spina bifida, Rh compatibility, Immature lungs, Down syndrome

Chorionic villus sampling: Removal of placental tissue for analysis from the uterus during early pregnancy. US helps guide the procedure. 1-2 weeks get the results. Can be performed earlier than amniocentesis.

Used to check for: Tay-Sachs disease, Down syndrome, Other disorders

Preeclampsia: presence of protein in the urine, and increased BP during pregnancy. Found in 8% of pregnancies.

Eclampsia: seizures occurring during pregnancy, symptoms of pre-eclampsia have worsened. Factors that cause eclampsia vs. pre-eclampsia relatively unknown.

Oligohydramnios: Low levels of amniotic fluid that can cause: fetal abnormalities, ruptured membranes and fetus disorders.

Polyhydramnios: High levels of amniotic fluid that can cause: gestational diabetes and congenital defects.

Polyhydraminos Causes:

Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome

Hydrops fetalis

Multiple fetus development

Anencephaly

Esophageal atresia

Gastroschisis

Sheehan’s syndrome: hypopituitarism caused by uterine hemorrhage during childbirth. The pituitary gland is unable to function due to blood loss.

Breast infections/Mastitis: Infection or inflammation due to bacterial infections. (S. aureus).

Atrophic vaginitis- low estrogen levels cause inflammation of the vagina. Most common after menopause.

Cervicitis: infection, foreign bodies,or chemicals that causes inflammation of the cervix.

Pelvic inflammatory disease: infection of the fallopian tubes, uterus or ovaries caused by STD’s in the majority of cases.

Toxic shock syndrome: infection of (S. aureus) that causes organ disorders and shock.

Hirsutism: development of dark areas of hair in women that are uncommon.

Causes:

Cushing’s syndrome

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

Hyperthecosis

PCOS

High Androgen levels

Certain medications

Dysmenorrhea: painful menses.

Endometriosis: abnormal tissue growth outside the uterus.

Stress Incontinence: A laugh, sneeze or activity that causes involuntary urination. Urethral sphincter dysfunction.

Urge incontinence- urine loss caused by bladder contraction.



Labels: OB Lecs

Tuesday, August 5, 2008
Cholecystectomy

complete pack
ap set
blade 10 nd 20
gloves
prep bowl
kick bucket
et tube
gen anesthesia
cautery machine
suction
conray
asepto syringe
chole set
retractors
sutures
NGT
10cc syringe
T-tube
penrose drain


Thursday, July 31, 2008
Appendectomy Set

complete pack
ap set
prep bowl
big OS
rubber tubing
suction tip
spinal set
scissors: mayo curve, metz, mayo straight
towel clips
army navy
baby richardson
deaver
sutures: chromic 3.0 vicyl 4.0 silk 3.0

set:
10mosquito curve
5 " straight
3kelly curve
2" straight
2needle holder
2blade holder
2 bobcock
1 tissue forcep
1 thumb forcep
5towel clip
1 suture book



Labels: OR

Tuesday, July 29, 2008
TAHBSO

complete pack
TAHBSO set
gloves
blade 10,20
foley cath
urine bag
army navy
big OS
richardson
deaver wide nd narrow
self retaining
mixters
bobcock
epidural set
scissors
lidocaine
powder
sutures: chromic 1 NA, chromic 2.0 PDS 0, procere 3.0, silk 1 strand

1 bladder ret
1long thumb
1 tissue/thumb
3needle holder(long)
6 long kelly curve
2" straight
3ochsner curve
3" st
2kelly st
7" curve
blade handle 3 nd 4
4allis
5towel clips
suture book



Labels: OR

Monday, July 28, 2008
needles

chromic 1.0 - 1st and 2nd
chromic 2.0 - 3rd peritoneum
vicryl 1-0 - fascia
plain 2-0 subq
vicryl 3-0 skin



Labels: OR

Sunday, July 27, 2008
Dermatology Review

Atopic Dermatitis: Scaling, Itching, Redness and Excoriation. Possible lichenification in chronic cases. Most common in young children around the elbow and knees. Adults are more common in neck and knees. May be associated with an allergic disorder, hay fever, or asthma.

Contact Dermatitis: Itchy, weepy reaction with a foreign substance (Poison Ivy) or lotions. Skin becomes red.

Diaper Rash: Inflammatory reaction in the region covered by a diaper. This may include chemical allergies, sweat, yeast, or friction irritation.

Ermatitis stasis: Decreased blood flow the lower legs resulting in a skin irritation, possible ulcer formation.

Onychomycosis: Fungal infection related to the fingernails or toenails. Often caused by Trichophyton rubrum.

Lichen planus: Treated with topical corticosteroids. The presence of pink or purple spots on the legs and arms. Lesions are itchy, flat and polygonal. May cause hair loss.

Pityriasis rosea: A mild to moderate rash that starts as a single pink patch and then numerous patches begin to appear on the skin. This may lead to itching. Found primarily in ages 10-35 years old.

Psoriasis: An autoimmune disease mediated by T lymphocytes that can lead to arthritis. Generally, treated with UV light, tar soap and topical steroid cream. A reddish rash that can be found in numerous locations.

Stevens-Johnson syndrome: An allergic reaction that can include rashes, and involve the inside of the mouth. May be due to drug sensitivity. Can lead to uveitis and keratitis. Other factors related to SJS include: pneumonia, fever, myalgia and hepatitis. SJS can be extremely similar to varicella zoster and pemphigus vulgaris conditions. There may also be the presence of herpes virus or Mycoplasma pneumoniae.

Bullous pemphigoid: Eruptions of the skin caused by the accumulation of antibodies in the basement membrane of the skin. Treated with cortisone creams or internally. Skin biopsy offers definitive diagnosis.

Acne vulgaris: Oil glands become inflamed, plugged or red. May be treated in moderate to severe cases with anti-inflammatory medications or creams.

Rosacea: A redness that covers the middle part of the face. Blood vessels in the face dilate. Most common in adults 30-50 years old. Unable to be cured, only treated. May cause long term skin damage is left untreated. Antibiotics are often prescribed.

Seborrheic keratosis: The development of skin “tags” or the barnacles of old age. Usually found in people over 30 years old. Appear to be tabs growing in groups or individually on your skin. Can be treated with Scrapping, Freezing or Electrosurgery.

Actinic keratosis: A site that can become cancerous, usually small and rough on the skin that has been exposed to the sun a lot. Usually treated with cryosurgery and photodynamic therapy.

Scabies: Caused by the human itch mite: Sarcaptes scabies, and identified by presence of raised, red bumps that are itchy. Closer identification with a visual aid will show streaks in the skin created by the mite.

Molluscum contagiosum: Considered a STD. Small downgrowths called molluscum bodies that include the presence of soft tumors in the skin caused by a virus. Contagious.

Herpes zoster: Infection caused by the varicella-zoster virus. Can cause chickenpox and then shingles in later years. The virus infects the dosal root ganglia of nerves and can cause intense itching.

St. Anthony’s Fire: Claviceps purpurea (fungus) can cause intense pain in the extremities by causing blood vessels to constrict. Fungus produces ergotamines.

Impetigo: A skin infection caused by Staph or Streptococcus that causes itchy, red skin and pustules. Treated with topical antibiotics and primarily affects children.

Acanthosis nigricans: The presence of dark velvety patches of skin around the armpit, back, neck and groin. Can occur with multiple diseases. Has been linked to patients with insulin dysfunction.

Hidradenitis suppurativa: The presence of numerous abscess in the groin and armpit region.

Melasma: “Mask of Pregnancy” Changes in the pigmentation of women that are pregnant. Occurs in 50% of all pregnancies.

Urticaria: Elevated itchy areas that are linked to allergic reactions. May be accompanied with edema and may blanch with touch. “Hives”

Vitiligo: Loss of melanocytes resulting in skin turning white. Hair in regions affected will also turn white. Primarily identified in ages 10-30. Several genetic factors involved. May be associated with other more severe autoimmune disorders.



Labels: MS Lec

Saturday, July 26, 2008
Nursing Licensure Result June 2008

COMPLETE LIST OF NURSING LICENSURE EXAM PASSERS
A total of 27,765 out of 64,459 passed the Nurse Licensure Examination held last June 2008. The examination was administered in 10 areas nationwide.

Click here.



Labels: board exam, nle result

TOP 10 NURSING BOARD PASSERS 2008

MANILA, Philippines—Following are the top 10 test-takers of the nursing licensure examination:

Top 1
• Aira Therese Salamanca Javier, University of Santo Tomas -- 86.00%

Top 2
Alrin Flores Falgui, Far Eastern University-Nicanor Reyes Medical Foundation -- 85.80%

Top 3
• Kristine Maravilla Mendoza, Remedios Trinidad Romualdez Memorial School -- 85.60%
• Joanna Jacob Quirante, University of Santo Tomas -- 85.60%

Top 4
• Ana Rica Chan Gutierrez, University of Santo Tomas -- 85.40%
• Dalfon Silvio Babular Navaja, Cebu Institute of Technology -- 85.40%
• Maria Alyssa Yee Policarpio, University of Santo Tomas -- 85.40%
• Aileen Grace Yu Sotyco, University of Santo Tomas -- 85.40%

Top 5
• Michelle Cruz Amoroso, University of the Philippines-Manila -- 85.20%
• Ma. Regina Basa Ang, Our Lady of Fatima University-Valenzuela -- 85.20%
• Michelle Joyce Cheung Encarnacion, University of Santo Tomas -- 85.20%
• Lyka Abalajon Gede-Y, Riverside College -- 85.20%
• Jason Albia Go, University of Santo Tomas -- 85.20%
• Katherine Rose Rodrigo Raquel, De La Salle University-Dasmariñas Health Science Campus -- 85.20%

Top 6
• Regina Krys Villaflor Cabanilla, Cebu Normal University (Cebu State College) -- 85.00%
• Aster Annie De Jesus Calma, University of the Philippines-Manila -- 85.00%
• Tracy Michelle Buan Catacutan, Centro Escolar University-Manila -- 85.00%
• Diana Justo Cupino, University of Santo Tomas -- 85.00%
• Rachel Mae Tabuena Daigdigan, Mindanao State University-Marawi City -- 85.00%
• Karen Marie Galvez Flores, Trinity University of Asia (Trinity-QC) -- 85.00%
• Elaine Esther Saldua Funtanar, Cebu Normal University (Cebu State College) -- 85.00%
• Marion Delos Santos Llauder, University of Santo Tomas -- 85.00%
• Kevin Bryan Uy Lo, University of Santo Tomas -- 85.00%
• Anne Lorraine Trinidad Lorenzo, University of Perpetual Help Rizal-Las Piñas -- 85.00%
• Louie Jhon Erracho Lunaria, University of the Philippines-Manila -- 85.00%
• Joanna Roxas Maala, Our Lady of Fatima University-Valenzuela -- 85.00%
• Patrick Paras Mejia, University of Santo Tomas -- 85.00%
• Kristine Valino Picadizo, University of Perpetual Help Rizal-Las Piñas -- 85.00%
• Eiren Oro Rebute, West Visayas State University-La Paz -- 85.00%
• Rizza Armas Tamayo, Colegio De Dagupan (Computronix College) -- 85.00%
• Anna Mae Maquiling Trinidad, Mindanao State University-Marawi City -- 85.00%
• Jennifer Laggad Ugalde, Dr. Carlos S. Lanting College-Q.C. -- 85.00%

Top 7
• Ma. Leonor Galvan Barbosa, Mindanao Sanitarium & Hospital College of Med -- 84.80%
• Jennifer Baguio Gait, Velez College -- 84.80%
• Ariane Castañares Llevares, Cebu Normal University (Cebu State College) -- 84.80%
• Neil Anthony Esmilla Manzano, Our Lady of Fatima University-Valenzuela -- 84.80%
• Oliver Naval Mendoza, Saint Bernadette College of Health And Sciences -- 84.80%
• Maricor Cortez Montalbo, University of the Philippines-Manila -- 84.80%
• Tara Patawaran Patawaran, Dr. Carlos S. Lanting College-Q.C. -- 84.80%
• Roger Carlo Payawal Pineda, Dr. Yanga's Francisco Balagtas College -- 84.80%
• Bartolome Arthur Marcaida Quincina, Dr. Carlos S. Lanting College-Q.C. -- 84.80%
• Marion Katrina Lara Raguini, Far Eastern University-Manila -- 84.80%

Top 8
• Ma Cristina Diesta Arroyo, University of the East Ramon Magsaysay Mem. Medical Center -- 84.60%
• Lance Lambert Gatdula Ayson, Bulacan State University (Bulacan Coll. of Arts & Trades) -- 84.60%
• Carla Emille Dalangin Barbon, University of the Philippines-Manila -- 84.60%
• Rosauro Cruz Briones, Manuel S. Enverga Univ. Foundation-Lucena City -- 84.60%
• Jan Paolo Santiago Caparas, De La Salle University-Dasmariñas Health Science -- 84.60%
• Sozein Soliel Bacena Bustamante, University of Santo Tomas -- 84.60%
• Lourdes Claire Rodriguez David, University of Santo Tomas -- 84.60%
• Ana Joy Almie Cruz Dizon, University of Santo Tomas -- 84.60%
• Lorrainne Yu Embay, University of the Visayas-Mandaue City -- 84.60%
• Kristine Marie Lee Indiongco, Perpetual Help College of Manila -- 84.60%
• Imee Loren Chan Lim, University of Santo Tomas -- 84.60%
• Sim Pama Paniza, West Visayas State University-La Paz -- 84.60%
• Rochelle-Anne Ordinanza Primavera, University of Santo Tomas -- 84.60%
• Raichel Faye Mallari Ringor, University of Santo Tomas -- 84.60%
• Roxan Salvadora Roman, Our Lady of Fatima University-Valenzuela -- 84.60%
• Czarina Ann Arellano Sevilla, University of Santo Tomas -- 84.60%
• Jeffrey De Justo Silva, Saint Paul University-Iloilo -- 84.60%
• Zyena Joyce Palines Untalasco, University of the Philippines-Manila -- 84.60%
• Paola Sarona Young, University of the East Ramon Magsaysay Mem. Medical Center -- 84.60%

Top 9
• Blake Warren Coloma Ang, Cebu Doctors’ University -- 84.40%
• Trisha Carmelli Gonzales Bautista, University of the Philippines-Manila -- 84.40%
• Danica Bianca Bernad Cagalawan, Saint Michael's College-Iligan City -- 84.40%
• Janna Bianca Albano Cajigal, University of Santo Tomas -- 84.40%
• Kathryn Kaye Aquino Carpio, University of Santo Tomas -- 84.40%
• Glynnis Doreen Olegario Corpuz, Capitol Medical Center School of Nursing -- 84.40%
• Katrina Rae Limjoco Daza, University of Santo Tomas -- 84.40%
• Jean Daisy Camacho De Guzman, University of the Philippines-Manila -- 84.40%
• Fritzie Praxidio Dela Cruz, University of Perpetual Help System-Laguna -- 84.40%
• Willenburgh Wong Ducusin, Manila Central University-Caloocan City -- 84.40%
• Gwen Atienza Legaspi, Saint Paul University-Manila -- 84.40%
• John Philip Tecson Lim, University of Santo Tomas -- 84.40%
• Stephanie Anne Chan Lopez, De Los Santos-Sti College,Inc-(Delos Santos S.N.) -- 84.40%
• Myron Marco Miranda Mariano, University of Santo Tomas -- 84.40%
• John Vincent Lim Omo, Holy Name University (Divine Word-Tagbilaran) -- 84.40%
• Maria Wella Balbona Pichon, University of the Visayas-Cebu City -- 84.40%
• May Stephanie Go Pua, Naga College Foundation -- 84.40%
• Daryle Joie Masocol Ragasa, Manila Doctors’ College -- 84.40%
• Girlie Lazaro Repuyan, University of Santo Tomas -- 84.40%
• Meludee Joy Madrigal Roche, Cebu Normal University (Cebu State College) -- 84.40%
• Maria Aileen Custodio Santiago, Dr. Carlos S. Lanting College-Q.C. -- 84.40%
• Arthur Michael Aris Camu Sunico, Far Eastern University-Manila -- 84.40%
• John Hirogie Abad Toku, Trinity University of Asia (Trinity-QC) -- 84.40%
• Angela Solayao Tiu, Velez College -- 84.40%
• Catherine Dasmariñas Uy -- Southeast Asian College (UDMC) -- 84.40%

Top 10
• Romina Paula Parreño Barrameda, University of Santo Tomas -- 84.20%
• John Robert Razote Bautista, Trinity University of Asia (Trinity-Qc) -- 84.20%
• Jeriel Bayhonan Besagas, Cebu Normal University (Cebu State College) -- 84.20%
• Marienne Sungcad Bravo, STI College Cebu, Inc -- 84.20%
• Evelyn Cuares Caseñas, University of Bohol -- 84.20%
• Bridgel Avila Galorio, Cebu Normal University (Cebu State College) -- 84.20%
• Ma. Bernadette Valdivia Lopez-Dee, University of Santo Tomas -- 84.20%
• May Flor Llego Marcolino, Larmen De Guia Memorial College -- 84.20%
• Kristian Santos Noche, Centro Escolar University-Manila -- 84.20%
• Dianne Mae Lagman Notario, Our Lady of Fatima University-Valenzuela -- 84.20%
• Kristine Ann Tagupa Panal, Mountain View College -- 84.20%
• Marnela Kathleen Veluya Pasamba, Sacred Heart College of Lucena City, Inc. -- 84.20%
• Ruby Joma Fadri Rafanan, Adventist University of the Philippines -- 84.20%
• Razeille Kristine Asistio Razon, University of Santo Tomas -- 84.20%
• Darra May Rapada Riano, Far Eastern University-Manila -- 84.20%
• Jomar Pacleb Ronquillo, Columban College-Olongapo City -- 84.20%
• Jeffrey Ramos Salazar, University of the Philippines-Manila -- 84.20%
• Frederick Abad Sampang, University of Santo Tomas -- 84.20%
• Marnelee Grace Rivera Semilla, Trinity University of Asia (Trinity-QC) -- 84.20%
• Janelle Grace Teo Sia, University of Santo Tomas -- 84.20%
• Jeanette Martinez Villar, West Visayas State University-La Paz -- 84.20%

CONGRATULATIONS EVERYONE!

courtesy of inquirer.net



Labels: board exam, nle result

Thursday, July 24, 2008
Disorder of the Ears

Otitis media: Most common caused by the bacteria (H.flu) and Streptococcus pneumoniae in about 85% of cases. 15% of cases viral related. More common in bottlefeeding babies. Can be caused by upper respiratory infections. Ear drums can rupture in severe cases. A myringotomy may be performed in severe cases to relieve pus in the middle ear.

Barotitis: Atmospheric pressures causing middle ear dysfunction. Any change in altitude causes problems.

Mastoiditis: May be caused by an ear infection and is known as inflammation of the mastoid.

Meniere's disease: Inner ear disorder. Causes unknown. Episodic rotational vertigo, Tinnitus, Hearing loss, and Ringing in the ears are key symptoms. Dazide is the primary medication for Meniere’s disease. Low salt diet and surgery are also other treatment options. Diagnosis is a rule-out diagnosis.

Labyrinthitis: Vertigo associated with nausea and malaise. Related to bacterial and viral infections. Inflammation of the labyrinth in the inner ear.

Otitis externa: Usually caused by a bacterial infection. Swimmer’s ear. Infection of the skin with the outer ear canal that progress to the ear drum. Itching, Drainage and Pain are the key symptoms. Suctioning of the ear canal may be necessary. Most common ear drops (Volsol, Cipro, Cortisporin).


Labels: MS Lec

Tuesday, July 15, 2008
Disorder of the Eyes

Diabetic retinopathy: Blood vessels in the retina are affected. Can lead to blindness if untreated. Two primary stages (Proliferative and Nonproliferative. Retina may experience bleeding in nonproliferative stage. During the proliferative stage damage begins moving towards the center of the eye and there is an increase in bleeding. Any damage caused is non-reversible. Only further damage can be prevented.

Strabismus: Eyes are moving in different stages. The axes of the eyes are not parallel. Normally, treated with an eyepatch; however, eye drops are now used in many cases. Atropine drops are placed in the stronger eye for correction purposes. Surgery may be necessary in some cases. Suture surgery will reduce the pull of certain eye muscles.

Macular Degeneration: Impaired central vision caused by destruction of the macula, which is the center part of the retina. Limited vision straight ahead. More common in people over 60. Can be characterized as dry or wet types. Wet type more common. Vitamin C, Zinc, and Vitamin E may help slow progression.

Esotropia: Appearance of cross-eyed gaze or internal strabismus.

Exotropia: External strabismus or divergent gaze.

Conjunctivitis: Inflammation of the conjuctiva, that can be caused by viruses or bacteria. Also known as pink eye. If viral source can be highly contagious. Antibiotic eye drops and warm cloths to the eye helpful treatment. Conjunctivitis can also be caused by chemicals or allergic reactions. Re-occurring conjunctivitis can indicate a larger underlying disease process.

Glaucoma: An increase in fluid pressure in the eye leading to possible optic nerve damage. More common in African-Americans. Minimal onset symptoms, often picked to late. Certain drugs may decrease the amount of fluid entering the eye. Two major types of glaucoma are open-angle glaucoma and angle-closure glaucoma.



Labels: MS Lec

Saturday, July 5, 2008
Disorders of the mouth

Acute pharyngitis: Often the cause of sore throats, inflammation of the pharynx.

Acute tonsillitis: Viral or Bacterial infection that causes inflammation of the tonsils.

Aphthous ulcer: Also known as a canker sore. A sensitive ulcer in the lining of the mouth. 1 in 5 people have these ulcers. Cause is unknown in many cases.

Acute Epiglottitis: Inflammation of the epiglotitis that may lead to blockage of the respiratory system and death if not treated. Often caused by numerous bacteria. Intubation may be required and speed is critical in treatment. IV antibiotics will help reverse this condition in most cases. Common symptoms are high fever and sore throat.

Oral candidiasis: This is a yeast infection of the throat and mouth by Candida albicans.

Oral leukoplakia: A patch or spot in the mouth that can become cancerous.

Parotitis: A feature of mumps and inflammation of the parotid glands.



Labels: MS Lec

Sunday, June 29, 2008
Gastrointestinal Review

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome: Tumors of the pancreas that cause upper GI inflammation. The tumors secrete gastrin causing high levels of stomach acid.

Wilson’s disease: High levels of copper in various tissues throughout the body. (Genetically linked- Autosomal recessive). Kayser-Fleisher Rings in the eye (bluish rings aound the iris)

Pancreatitis: Inflammation of the pancreas

Pancreatic Cancer: cancer of the pancreas. Higher rates in men.

Hepatitis A: Viral infection that causes liver swelling.

Hepatitis B: Sexually transmitted disease, also transmitted with body fluids and some individual may be symptom free but still be carriers.

Hepatitis C: An inflammation of the liver caused by infection with the hepatitis C virus.

Gastritis: can be caused by various sources (bacteria, viruses, bile reflux or autoimmune diseases). Inflammation of the stomach lining.

Ulcers

Peptic Ulcers -ulcer in the duodenum or stomach

Gastric Ulcers - ulcer in the stomach (pain 30 to 60 minutes after a meal)

Duodenum Ulcer -ulcer in the duodenum (pain 30 to 60 minutes after a meal)

Bacteria: Helicobacter pylori- often associated with ulcer formation.

Diverticulitis – abnormal pouch formation that becomes inflamed in the intestinal wall.

Intestinal obstruction: Can a paralytic ileus/false obstruction (children) or a mechanical obstruction:

Carcinoid Syndrome: symptoms caused by carcinoid tumors. Linked to increased secretion of Serotonin.

Hiatal Hernia: Stomach sticks into the chest through the diaphragm. Can cause reflux symptoms.

(GERD) -Gastroesophageal reflux disease, a disorder in which there is recurrent return of stomach contents back up into the esophagus, frequently causing heartburn, a symptom of irritation of the esophagus by stomach acid.

Ulcerative colitis: chronic inflammation of the rectum and large intestine.


Labels: MS Lec

Monday, June 23, 2008
Tumor Review

Primary Tumors

Neuromas -80-90% of brain tumors, named for what part of nerve cell affected.

Meningiomas - outside of arachnoidal tissue, usually benign and slow growing

Glioblastoma Multiform -50% of all primary tumors, linked to specific genetic mutations

Secondary Tumors - Metastatic carcinomas

Scale –degree of anaplasia: differentiation of mature (good) vs. immature cells (bad)

Grade I: up to 25% anaplasia

Grade II: 26-50% anaplasia

Grade III: 51-75% anaplasia

Grade IV: 76-100% anaplasia

Primary Tumor Effect:

1. Headaches
2. Vomiting
3. Seizures
4. Neurological problems
5. Dementia
6. Drowsiness

Secondary Tumor Effect:

1. Direct compression/necrosis
2. Herniation of brain tissue
3. Increase ICP

Noteworthy Tumor Markers

1. AFP

2. Alkaline phosphatase

3. β-hCG

4. CA-125

5. PSA

Basal cell carcinoma: a slow-growing form of skin cancer. Basal cell carcinoma is a type of non-melanoma skin cancer, and is the most common form of cancer in the United States

Chondrosarcoma: A malignant tumor that forms in cartilage cells (chondroplasts) and that produces cartilage matrix. Primary chondrosarcoma forms in bone and is found in children.

Ewing’s sarcoma: Ewing's sarcoma is a malignant (cancerous) bone tumor that affects children.

Giant cell tumor: A type of bone tumor characterized by massive destruction of bone near the end (epiphysis) of a long bone.

Melanoma: Melanoma is the most dangerous type of skin cancer. It involves the cells that produce the skin pigment melanin. Melanin is responsible for skin and hair color. Melanoma can also involve the colored part of the eye.

Meningioma: A common type of slow growing, usually benign brain tumor that arises from the dura, one of the meninges, the membranes covering the brain and spinal cord. A meningioma may occur wherever there is dura but the most common sites are over the cerebral hemispheres of the brain.

Oligodendroglioma: A rare slow-growing type of brain tumor that begins in cells called oligodendrocytes, which provide support and nourishment for cells that transmit nerve impulses.

Pituitary ademona: : A benign tumor of the pituitary, the master gland that controls other glands and influences numerous body functions including growth. Although the tumor itself is not cancerous, it may affect pituitary function, and therefore may need to be removed.

Schwannoma: A tumor of the peripheral nervous system that arises in the nerve sheath (protective covering). It is almost always benign, but rare malignant schwannomas have been reported.

Squamous cell carcinoma: Squamous cell skin cancer is a type of tumor that affects the middle layer of the skin. Most skin cancers occur on skin that is regularly exposed to sunlight or other ultraviolet radiation.




Leukemia Review

ALL- acute lymphocytic leukemia is a fast-growing cancer in which the body produces a large number of immature white blood cells (lymphocytes). These cells can be found in the blood, bone marrow, lymph nodes, spleen, and other organs. Most cases occur in children between ages 3 and 7.

AML- acute myelocytic leukemia is cancer that starts inside bone marrow, the soft tissue inside bones that helps form blood cells. The cancer grows from cells that would normally turn into white blood cells. It generally occurs around age 65.

CLL- chronic lymphocytic leukemia causes a slow increase in the number of B lymphocytes in the bone marrow. The cancerous cells spread from the blood marrow to the blood, and can also affect the lymph nodes and other organs. CLL causes the bone marrow to fail and weakens the immune system.

CML- chronic myeloid leukemia is a slowly progressing disease in which too many white blood cells (not lymphocytes) are made in the bone marrow.



Labels: MS Lec

Pediatric Condition

Wilm’s tumor: kidney tumor found in children. Cause: unknown/possible genetic link. Tumor will spread to other regions. Sometimes children will be born with aniridia. Do not exert pressure over the abdomen.

Neuroblastoma: tumor in children that starts from nervous tissue. Capable of spreading rapidly. Cause unknown.

Cerebral palsy: Cerebrum injury causing multiple nerve function deficits.

Croup: trouble breathing in infants and children that can be caused by bacteria, viruses, allergies or foreign objects. Primarily, caused by viruses.

Kawasaki disease: a disease that affects young children primarily. Unknown origin probable autoimmune disease. Attacks the heart, blood vessels, and lymph nodes. Strawberry tongue

Pyloric stenosis: a narrowing of the opening between the intestine and stomach. Most common in infants. May have genetic factors

Vaccinations

Attenuated – Varicella, MMR

Inactivated – Influenza

Toxoid – Tetanus/Diptheria

Biosynthetic – Hib conjugate vaccine

Tetralogy of Fallot- 4 heart defects that are congenital. Poorly oxygenated blood is pumped to the body’s tissues.

4 factors:

Right ventricular hypertrophy

Ventricular septal defect

Aorta from both ventricles

Stenosis of the pulmonic outflow tract

Atrial septal defect- congenital opening between the atria.

Ventricular septal defect- opening between the ventricles of the heart.

Patent ductus arteriosus: open blood vessel (ductus ateriosus) that does not close after birth.

Aortic coarctation: aorta becomes narrow at some point due to a birth defect

Po

Labels: Pediatrics Lec


QC GEn Post Grad Training

august start ng new batch of trainees sa qcgen. 2,400 pesos for 6 mos., rotational basis including special areas. for more info call 4261314, pa-connect mo nalang sa training office.


Labels: nurse training

Wednesday, May 28, 2008
Anti-Microbial Drugs

Tetracyclines:

Tetracycline

Doxycycline

Minocycline

Demeclocycline

Macrolides:

Carithormycin

Erythromycin

Azithromycin

Aminoglycosides:

Amikacin

Gentamicin

Neomycin

Tobramycin

Streptomycin

Protein Synthesis Inhibitors:

Chloramphenicol

Aminoglycosides

Tetracyclines

TB Medications:

Isoniazid

Rifampin

Ethambutol

Pyrazinamide

Ethambutol

Fluoroquinolones:

Ciprofloxacin

Sparfloxacin

Enaxacin

Nalidixic acid

Norfloxacin

Mortifloxacin

Sulfonamides:

Sulfadiazine

Sulfisoxazole

Sulfamethoxazole

Malaria Treatment:

Chlorquine

Quinine

Mefloquine

Additional Mentionable Anti-viral Drugs:

Acyclovir

Amatadine

Ribavirin

Zanamivir

Ganciclovir

HIV Treatment:

Zidovudine (AZT)

Nevirapine

Didanosine

Protease Inhibitors-(HIV)

Saquinavir

Retinonavir

Nelfinavir



Labels: Pharma Lec


Asthma Treatment

Corticosteroids:

Prednisone

Beclomethasone

Antileukotrienes:

Zafirlukast

Zileuton

Beta 2 agonists:

Salmeterol

Albuterol

Nonselective Beta agonists:

Isoproterenolol

Muscarinic agonists:

Ipratropium

H2 blockers:

Famotidine

Nizatidine

Cimetidine

Ranitidine






Musculoskeletal Review

Legg-Calve-Perthes disease: poor blood supply to the superior aspect of the femur. Most common in boys ages 4-10. The femur ball flattens out and deteriorates. 4x higher incidence in boys + Bony cresent sign.

Developmental dysplasia of the hip: abnormal development of the hip joint found that is congenital.

Slipped capital femoral epiphysis: 2x greater incidence in males, most common hip disorder in adolescents. The ball of the femur separates from the femur along the epiphysis.

Polymyalgia Rheumatica- hip or shoulder pain disorder in people greater than 50 years old.

Systemic lupus erythemtosus: autoimmune disorder that affects joints, skin and various organ systems. Chronic and inflammatory. 9x more common in females. Butterfly rash

Scleroderma: connective tissue disease that is diffuse.

Rheumatoid Arthritis: inflammatory autoimmune disease that affects various tissues and joints.

Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis: inflammatory disease that occurs in children.

Paget’s disease: abnormal bone development that follows bone destruction. The disease is characterized by excessive breakdown of bone tissue, followed by abnormal bone formation. The new bone is structurally enlarged, but weakened and filled with new blood vessels.

Osteoarthritis: chronic condition affecting the joint cartilage that may result in bone spurs being formed in the joints. Morning stiffness

Gout: uric acid development in the joints causing arthritis.

Fibromyalgia: joint, muscle and soft tissue pain in numerous locations. Presence of tender points and soft tissue pain.

Duchenne muscular dystrophy: Genetically X-linked recessive type of muscular dystrophy that starts in the lower extremities. Dystrophin-protein dysfunction.

Ankylosing spondylitis: Vertebrae of the spine fuse. A type of arthritis that causes chronic inflammation of the spine and the sacroiliac joints. Chronic inflammation in these areas causes pain and stiffness in and around the spine. Over time, chronic spinal inflammation (spondylitis) can lead to a complete cementing together (fusion) of the vertebrae, a process called ankylosis. Ankylosis causes total loss of mobility of the spine.

Compartment syndrome: impaired blood flow and nerve dysfunction caused by nerve and blood vessel compression.

Osteosarcoma: bone tumor that is malignant and found in adolescents.



Labels: MS Lec

Monday, May 12, 2008
Cancer Treatment Drugs

Etoposide

Nitrosoureas

Cisplatin

Doxorubicin

Incristine

Paclitaxel

Methotrexate

6 – mercaptopurine

Busulfan

5 – fluorouracil

Lomustine

Carmustine

Glaucoma Treatment:

Prostaglandins

Diuretics

Alpha agonists

Beta Blockers

Throbolytics:

Urokinase

Anistreplase

Streptokinase

Alteplase

Cox 2 Inhibitors:

Rofecoxib

Celecoxib

NSAID’s:

Naproxen

Indomethacin

Ibuprofen

Diabetic Treatment:

Sulfonylureas:

Chlorpropamide

Tolbutamide

Glyburide

Glitazones:

Rosiglitazone

Troglitazone

Pioglitazone

Insulin- Key
Metformin



Labels: Pharma Lec


CNS Pharmacology

Sympathomimetics:

Dopamine

Dobutamine

Epinephrine

Norephinephrine

Isoproterenol

Cholinomimetics:

Carbachol

Neostigmine

Pyridostigmine

Echothiophate

Bethanechol

Cholinoreceptor blockers:

Hexamethonium-Nicotinic blocker

Atropine-Muscarinic blocker

Beta blockers:

Atenolol

Nadolol

Propranolol

Metoprolol

Pindolol

Labetalol

Tricyclic Antidepressants:

Doxepine

Imipramine

Amitriptyline

Nortriptyline

Amitriptyline

Parkinson’s Treatment:

L-dopa

Amantadine

Bromocriptine

Benzodiazepindes:

Iorazepam

Triazolam

Oxazepam

Diazepam

Opiod Analgesics:

Heroin

Methadone

Morphine

Codeine

Dextromethorphan

Meperidine

MAO Inhibitors:

Tranylcypromine

Phenelzine

Seroton specific Re-uptake inhibitors:

Paroxetine

Sertraline

Fluoxetine

Citalopram

Epilepsy Treatment:

Valproic acid

Phenobarbital

Benzodiazepines

Gabapentin

Ethosuximide

Carbamazepine

Barbiturates:

Pentobarbital

Thiopental

Phenobarbital

Secobarbital

IV Anethestics:

Midazolam

Ketamine

Morphine

Fentanyl

Propofol

Thiopental

Local Anesthetics:

Tetracaine

Procaine

Lidocaine

Neuroleptics (Antipsychotic drugs)

Chlorpromazine

Thioridazine

Clozapine

Fluphenazine

Haloperidol

Alpha 1 Selective blockers:

Terazosin

Prazosin

Doxazosin

Alpha 2 Selective blockers:

Yohimbine



Labels: MS Lec, Pharma Lec

National Health Market

Offers assistance to those health care professionals get the job that they want. They are bridging the gap between healthcare job seekers and medical facilities, recruitment agencies, staffing companies and hospitals. The better thing about this is you can post resume to be seen nationwide and will be evaluated by employers worldwide. The employer will contact you and you don’t have to hassle going to their offices just to pass your resume or inquire if they have a job opening for you. You can check them online. This is what we called convenience in our own home. The National Health Market goal is to bridge the gap between health workers and facilities and has monthly drawings pulled from resumes posted that include scrubs, gift cards or supplies such as stethoscope. What’s great about this is their Resource Center for Health Workers can assist in CEU's, licensing info, forum to share thoughts, scrubs stores, VISA, relocating assistance and more. They are offering competitive salaries, 100% paid health insurance, free private housing, travel allowance and 401K, plus some have BONUSES. They also offer the health workers a choice if they wanted a full time job or per diem located in a variety of setting such as hospitals, hospice care and the like.

This is great news for all of us health workers. If you are looking for a health care job you should check out National Health Market for more details.

P

Labels: product review

Tuesday, March 18, 2008
Cardiovascular Pharmacology

Antiarrhythmics- Na+ channel blockers (Class I)

Class IA

Procainamide

Disopyramide

Amiodarone

Quinidine

Class IB

Mexiletine

Lidocaine

Tocainide

Class IC

Flecainide

Encainide

Propafenone

Antiarrhythmics (Beta blockers) (Class II)

Metroprolol

Atenolol

Propranolol

Timolol

Esmolol

Antiarrhythmics (K+Channel blockers) (ClassIII)

Sotaolol

Amiodarone

Bretylium

Ibutilide

Antiarrhythmics (Ca2+ channel blockers) (Class IV)

Diltiazem

Verapamil

Vasodilators:

Verapamil

Minoxidil

Hydralazine

Calcium Channel Blockers:

Verapamil

Diltiazem

Nifedipine

Sympathoplegics:

Beta blockers

Clonidine

Reserpine

Guanethidine

Prazosin

ACE Inhibitors:

Lisinopril

Enalapril

Captopril

Cardiac glycosides:

Digoxin

Diuretics:

Loop Dieuretics

Hydrocholorothiazide

K+ Sparing Dieuretics

Spironolactone

Triamterene

Amiloride



Labels: Pharma Lec


Ontario College

College Diploma is the very most important thing to have right now. As we all know we can have a brighter future through education, we can achieve all our dreams and aspiration in life with the help of it. There is nothing impossible in this world if we ourselves are educated enough to face the workers jungle so we’d better have a good and quality college education. At Ontario College they have a great offer for those who wish to enroll at their prestigious school they have a financial aid assistance which is very important at this day and age, a career service and employer assistance when you graduate and most of all they have a great deal for international students as well. That’s pretty cool huh? Aside from that they also have career training. This will equip you with knowledge and confidence for your future. So don’t you just sit there and wait for something good to happen in your life you might as well think and grab every close opportunity that come your way and you should think wisely about your course or shall I say your choice of specialty plus putting yourself in a reputable school and you’ll never go wrong.. And the success is just one step away.



Labels: review

IELTS TIPS

To be honest, if your taking IELTS for general purpose, there is no difference between workshop vs. your own practice.

Here's why:
For Listening Test (the most difficult):
The most tricky part is understanding their accent (british). So I suggest that you subscribe (Free) to BBCWorldnews on-line and try to listen everyday to familiarize yourself with Brit accent. The speed for listening then understanding and your speed for writing important facts which will be played once. Being an english speaking and watching a lot of hollywood movies, i think you can create your own strategy to improve by practicing on your own.

For Reading,
I'm sure you can do this, because you have plenty of time to go back to the story and questions & vice versa. So, you don't need workshop on this, we have taken a lot of this type of exam like NCEE and university entrance exam.
For writing, try to practice by writing a letter like those in your sample exam before the actual exam, because "time" is your enemy

For Speaking,
DON'T Be NERVOUS!!!! relax and just be yourself to avoid mental block...Remember, what they want to check is whether you understand questions and you are capable of expressing your thoughts.....So try practicing by speaking in front of the mirror...Famous Questions Where did you came from? and please describe what type of place is your home.
So impress the examiner that you undertand his questions and you are giving her the best notion and best explanations....So don't be afraid...
canada4all
Medical Terminology Systems: A Body Systems Approach




The new edition of this classic text uses a word-building and body systems approach to help your students learn medical terminology and achieve a high level of competence. It combines the format of a classroom teaching text with that of a workbook, focusing your students on the terms you want them to learn while also helping them develop an extensive medical vocabulary on their own.
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Instant Anatomy


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Physical Assessment for Nurses




Physical assessment is a means of evaluating health status using a combination of clinical examination and history taking. A complete physical assessment should form the basis of all nursing care.

Physical Assessment for Nurses is aimed at all advanced nurse practitioners and nurses preparing to become advanced nurse practitioners. It forms the foundation for extending practice. The text explores best practice in history taking and summarises the key clinical skills needed to develop and improve physical examination skills and to competently assess, diagnose, plan and provide care.

CODE
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European Resuscitation Council Posters




Includes:

Basic Life Support
Automated External Defibrillation
In-hospital Resuscitation
Advanced Life Support
Bradycardia Algorithm
Tachycardia Algorithm
Basic Paediatric Life Support
Advanced Paediatric Life Support
Basic Neonatal Life Support

CODE
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Medical Knowledge Self-Assessment Program (MKSAP) 14




Self-assessment has never been easier or more efficient. You can search through the entire MKSAP 14 program for syllabus content and questions on a specific topic, key points, or instant access to a single word or passage. Read the critiques immediately without paging through a book. When you answer each question, you'll get immediate feedback showing not only the correctness of your answer with a full critique of all the other options, but also how your response compares to those from a panel of more than 100 of your peers during a pre-launch test period.

CODE
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USMLE I & II Flashcards




Includes:

1 USMLE Step I Comprehensive review (3831)
2 USMLE Step 2 Rapid Review (460)
3 USMLE First Aid Classic Findings (276)
4 USMLE - Diseases and Findings (439)
5 USMLE - BRS Pathology (181)


CODE
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Swanton's Cardiology: A Concise Guide to Clinical Practice




http://rapidshare.com/files/199554574/swanton_s_cardiology.pdf.ht


Gastrointestinal Emergencies





http://rapidshare.com/files/199554434/GastrointestinalEmergencies_2ndEdition.pdf.html


Menopause For Dummies


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Managing PCOS For Dummies


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Multiple Sclerosis For Dummies




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Stretching For Dummies



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Endometriosis For Dummies



CODE
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The GL Diet For Dummies




CODE
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[/code]
Hypnotherapy For Dummies



CODE
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Low-Calorie Dieting For Dummies


CODE
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IBS For Dummies



CODE
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Genetics For Dummies



CODE
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Osteoporosis For Dummies
CODE
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Living With Hepatitis C For Dummies



CODE
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Nurse's Pocket Drug Guide 2009


CODE
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Protocols for High-Risk Pregnancies




CODE
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Children's Health For Dummies



CODE
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Bipolar Disorder For Dummies




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Healthy Aging For Dummies




CODE
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Sex For Dummies

CODE
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Hypoglycemia for Dummies


CODE
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Kozier's Fundamentals of Nursing



For Fundamentals of Nursing Courses in the Nursing Curriculum. Fundamentals of Nursing, 7/E presents the fundamentals of nursing care within the framework of the nursing process. Text offers an accessible writing style, a focus on practical application with real-world examples and case studies. The text is supported by a state-of-the art technology package to enhance the learning process.
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The New England Journal of Medicine Videos

CODE
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Lippincott's Nursing Drug Guide




CODE
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canada4all
MULTIPLE
Usmle Kaplan Step 2 Lectures Notes 2008-2009
CODE
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Labels: USMLE
First Aid for the USMLE Step 2 CS
Clinical Skills Exam (First Aid USMLE)
McGraw-Hill Medical | 2006 | ISBN: 0071470581 | Pages: 336 | PDF | 1.01 MB

A STUDENT TO STUDENT GUIDE
. . The top-selling CS review book written by students and IMGs who recently passed. 100+ high-yield minicases by chief complaint. 30 complete cases simulate the exam experience. Contains new Patient Encounters, including telephone interviews. Perfect for group or solo study. . YOUR COMPLETE CS SURVIVAL GUIDE FROM THE AUTHORS OF FIRST AID FOR THE USMLE STEP 1. .

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CODE
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Labels: USMLE
4/8/09
CHILDHOOD ASTHMA (PBK) (LUNG BIOLOGY IN HEALTH AND DISEASE)
Publisher: Informa Healthcare
Number Of Pages: 744
Publication Date: 2005-09-26
ISBN-10 / ASIN: 0824727355
ISBN-13 / EAN: 9780824727352
Binding: Hardcover

Book Description:
This meaning collects the stylish studies on the development, diagnosis, and communication of immatureness asthma and offers underway perspectives on newborn technologies that module appearance the direction of medicine asthma in the sociable decade-illustrating how advances in pulmonic duty measurement, inflammatory markers, imaging, and pharmacogenetics module compound the identification and monitoring of asthma in eld to come.

CODE
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Labels: asthma
Lange Q&a: Usmle Step 3
Lange Q&a: Usmle Step 3

Lange Q&A: USMLE Step 3
Publisher: McGraw-Hill Medical | ISBN: 0071492593 | edition 2008 | PDF | 465 pages | 4.2 mb
Everything You Need to Boost Your USMLE Step 3 Score!
LANGE Q&A: USMLE Step 3 is a comprehensive Q&A review of the core topics tested on the USMLE Step 3. It begins with an introduction to what residents can expect on exam day and strategy tips about answering questions. Chapters are organized by topic so you can focus your studies on your weakest areas. The final four chapters consist of practice tests in blocks of 50 questions each and emphasize the most frequently tested topics. Explanations discuss correct and incorrect answer options for a complete high-yield review.
CODE
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Medessentials: High-yield Usmle Step 1 Review
Medessentials: High-yield Usmle Step 1 Review


Michael Manley, Leslie D. Manley "medEssentials:
High-Yield USMLE Step 1 Review"
Kaplan Publishing | 2007-12-04 |
ISBN: 1427797161 |
544 pages |
PDF |
16,6 MB

CODE
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CODE
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Posted by asghar at 8:27 AM 0 comments
Labels: USMLE
DIABETES IN CLINICAL PRACTICE: QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS FROM CASE STUDIES (PRACTICAL DIABETES)
Publisher: Wiley
Number Of Pages: 482
Publication Date: 2007-01-17
ISBN-10 / ASIN: 0470035226
ISBN-13 / EAN: 9780470035221
Binding: Hardcover

Book Description:
Dealing with every the aspects of diabetes in clinical practice, this aggregation offers a comprehensive, easy-to-use pass to support aid professionals attain their direct of best direction and communication of their patients. Diabetes in Clinical Practice: Questions and Answers from Case Studies is presented in the modify of questions concerning diabetes diagnosis, direction and therapy supported on real-life housing studies. Each discourse is answered in a clear, cushy to study style.

CODE
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Labels: DIABETES
REVIEWS OF PHYSIOLOGY, BIOCHEMISTRY, AND PHARMACOLOGY, VOL.158 (2007)
Publisher: Springer | Language: arts | ISBN: 3540717900 | 161 pages | Data: 2007 | PDF | 1.7 Mb

Description: The highly flourishing Reviews of Physiology, Biochemistry and Pharmacology move to substance high-quality, in-depth reviews concealment the flooded arrange of recent physiology, biochemistry and pharmacology. Leading researchers are specially solicited to wage a rank discernment of the key topics in these prototypal multidisciplinary fields. In a modify directly multipurpose to scientists, this periodical aims to filter, particular and analyse the stylish developments in these apace onward fields.


CODE
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Labels: Pharmacology
4/6/09
DIABETIC CARDIOLOGY (PRACTICAL DIABETES)
Product Details
Book Publisher: Wiley-Interscience (15 February, 2008)
ISBN: 0470862041
Book author: Miles Fisher, Evangelist J. McMurray
Amazon Rating: Book Description:
With cardiovascular disease decent the most ordinary drive of modification in grouping with diabetes, welfare in the categorization and communication of hunch disease in these patients has been reawakened. This aggregation examines nonindustrial topics from a mostly cardiological perspective, concealment both medicine and non-pharmacological interventions.
The DIGAMI think on the ingest of intravenous insulin extract at the instance of myocardial pathology (MI) has excited a super sort of communicating writing on the prizewinning communication of MI in the diabetic patient. The UKPDS has shown that communication of Type 2 diabetes does not turn cardiovascular end-points significantly, but that battleful communication of murder push crapper do so. In addition, sub-group psychotherapy from individual super cardiovascular trials has shown that communication with statins, anti-platelet therapy, ACE inhibitors and another drugs module also turn cardiovascular events in grouping with diabetes.


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Labels: cardiovascular events with diabetes.
THE PRACTICE OF SURGICAL PATHOLOGY: A BEGINNER’S GUIDE TO THE DIAGNOSTIC PROCESS
Product Details
Book Publisher: Springer (03 March, 2008)
ISBN: 0387744851
Book author: Diana Weedman Molavi
Amazon Rating: Book Description:
In pathology activity within North America, there exists a panoramic notch in the method between scrutiny edifice and residency. Unlike another scrutiny disciplines, in which the skills of history-taking, fleshly examination, and categorization are nurtured from the prototypal assemblage of scrutiny school, the training of pathology bears lowercase resemblance to the seeable room of ornament acceptance that is second-year scrutiny edifice pathology. Few scrutiny schools hit required clinical rotations in pathology, and some electives rest restricted in orbit and participation. The pathology doctor ofttimes comes into act painfully unprepared.
The Practice of Surgical Pathology: A Beginners Guide to the Diagnostic Process lays the groundwork of applicatory pathology and provides a scaffold on which to physique a noesis base. It includes base preceding touchable and progresses finished apiece office system. Within apiece chapter, there is a short analyse of salient connatural histology, a communicating of exemplary specimen types, a strategic move to the specimen with a itemize of what to countenance for, and a communicating of how the assemblage of assorted diagnoses colligate to apiece other.


CODE
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4 AM 0 comments
Labels: Surgical Pathology
Hepatitis C Virus Disease
Hepatitis C Virus Disease (US$103)
Stationary Office | Pages: 308 | 2007-11-13 | ISBN: 0387713751 | 3 MB | Rapidshare and Megaupload
The Hepatitis C Virus is a field orbicular upbeat difficulty moving more than 170 meg people. HCV crapper yet advance to cirrhosis, liver failure, and cancer in some instances. This intensity module allow broad example writing that counterbalance such of the past, current, and forthcoming literature that has appeared since the finding of the hepatitis C virus polymer genome. It module specifically care with the personalty of different types of interferons in base investigate and clinical outcomes of HCV disease and its progression. The article of this business module be that the immunobiology of HCV and the IFN-induced change of the insusceptible salutation module be stressed more understandably then it has ever been in some another publication. It module be the immunobiology country that module support readers meliorate see the clinical effectualness of Interferon treatment. It module be a priceless intensity for the student, researcher, or clinician fascinated in HCV transmission, molecular virology, insusceptible response, cellular/molecular pathogenesis, and possibilities for nonindustrial trenchant newborn therapeutics and vaccines.

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Labels: Hepatitis C Virus Disease
surgery questions and answers
Publisher: McGraw-Hill Medical
Number Of Pages: 416
Publication Date: 2007-05-21
ISBN-10 / ASIN: 0071475664
ISBN-13 / EAN: 9780071475662

Book Description:
With 1000 USMLE-format surgery questions and answers, apiece with complete explanations, and a incentive training test, this inventiveness provides an unpaired analyse of surgery. Students module encounter everything they requirement to champion the USMLE Step 2 and the surgery ridge exam.



CODE
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Labels: Surgery
3/31/09
Retinal Angiography and Optical Coherence Tomography
Publisher:Springer |

Pages:372 | 2008-11-01 |
ISBN:0387689869 |
PDF | 28.9 MB

OCT is a relatively newborn imagery framework that is decent progressively favourite among ophthalmologists in both clannish and scholarly settings. Imaging has been a andante agitated Atlantic in ophthalmology for whatever time, but today OCT is providing another, more careful maker of incontestible modify in the eye, in diagnostic, therapeutic or post-surgical setting. (OCT and ultrasound both manoeuvre onward disease states and place preoperative healing. The disagreement is that OCT shows more impalpable changes, specially post-surgically.)
CODE
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Labels: Retinal Angiography
Ophthalmology: Expert Consult: Online and Print
Ophthalmology: Expert Consult: Online and Print
By Myron Yanoff, Jay S. Duker


* Publisher: Mosby
* Number Of Pages: 1552
* ISBN-10 / ASIN: 0323043321
* ISBN-13 / EAN: 9780323043328



Product Description:

Based on valuable customer feedback, Doctors Yanoff and Duker have streamlined their best-selling reference, Ophthalmology, to zero in on just the clinical answers you need in day-to-day practice. They've removed most of the basic science and anatomy information from the printed book and put it on the companion web site where it is easily accessible along with the entire contents of the book. This new edition presents unparalleled guidance on nearly every ophthalmic condition and procedure including the latest advances in the field, such as optical coherence tomography (OCT), the ocular surface, new pharmacologic therapies, updated oculoplastic surgical techniques, the latest in refractive surgery, and so much more. And, as an Expert Consult title, this meticulously updated 3rd edition comes with access to the complete contents online, fully searchable, plus additional basic science information.


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Labels: Ophthalmology
Essentials Of Ophthalmology
Essentials Of Ophthalmology
Publisher:Current Books Int. | 2007 | ISBN:8186793704 | avi | varries from 5 - 22 MB MB

17 Common Eye Surgery video, Ripped from the CDROM accompaning the aggregation Essentials of Opthalmology by Samar K Basak.

1 - PERIBULBAR BLOCK 9 mb
screen
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2 - INTRA CAPSULAR CATARACT EXTRACTION [ICCE] 10.9 mb
CODE
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3 - EXTRA CAPSULARCATARACT EXTRACTION ECCE] 19 mb
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CODE
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4 - SMALL INCISION CATARACT SURGERY [SICS] 14 mb
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5 - PHACOEMULSIFICATION 27.8 mb
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6 - TRABECULECTOMY 19.4 mb
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7 - CYCLOCRYOPEXY 5.7 mb
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8 - PENETRATING KERATOPLASTY 13.3 mb
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9 - TARSORRAPHY 13.3 mb
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10 - PTERYGIUM OPERATION [BARE SCLERA TECHNQUE WITH MMC] 12 mb
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11 - PTERYGIUM RESECTION WITH CONJUNCTIVAL LIMBAL AUTOGRAFT 18 mb
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12 - CHALAZION OPERATION 11.5 mb
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13 - SCLERAL BUCKLING 15.2 mb
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14 - DACRYOCYSTECTOMY 17.7 mb
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15 - DACRYOCYSTORHINOSTOMY 21.6 mb
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16 - EVISCERATION 14.9 mb
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17 - ENUCLEATION 14.9 mb
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Labels: Ophthalmology
THE EYE BOOK: A COMPLETE GUIDE TO EYE DISORDERS AND HEALTH.FREE DOWNLOAD EBOOKS
THE EYE BOOK: A COMPLETE GUIDE TO EYE DISORDERS AND HEALTH.FREE DOWNLOAD EBOOKS


* Publisher: The artist histrion University Press
* Number Of Pages: 572
* Publication Date: 2001-01-30
* ISBN-10 / ASIN: 0801865204
* ISBN-13 / EAN: 9780801865206

Product Description:
When every is substantially with our eyes, most of us verify them for granted. But when our exteroception is foggy or our eyes are itchy and watery, it’s hornlike to centre on anything but our eyes. In The Eye Book, threesome receptor tending specialists inform a broad meaning to support readers tending for their eyes and protect their vision, with primary tending to changes and diseases that become in the grown years.

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Labels: THE EYE BOOK
Lange Q&A: USMLE Step 3
Lange Q&A: USMLE Step 3
Publisher: McGraw-Hill Medical | ISBN: 0071492593 | edition 2008 | PDF | 465 pages | 4.2 mb

Everything You Need to Boost Your USMLE Step 3 Score!
LANGE Q&A: USMLE Step 3 is a comprehensive Q&A review of the core topics tested on the USMLE Step 3. It begins with an introduction to what residents can expect on exam day and strategy tips about answering questions. Chapters are organized by topic so you can focus your studies on your weakest areas. The final four chapters consist of practice tests in blocks of 50 questions each and emphasize the most frequently tested topics. Explanations discuss correct and incorrect answer options for a complete high-yield review

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canada4all
Registered Nurse Magazine, April 2008


Registered Nurse Magazine, April 2008
English | 24 pages | PDF | 4.3 MB

Registered Nurse magazine not only covers the activities of the California Nurses Association and National Nurses Organizing Committee, but also strives to produce hard-hitting news features and thoughtful analyses about nursing and the real ills plaguing the U.S. healthcare system.

You’ll find true stories from the front lines of care given by the nation’s 2.5 million registered nurses, as well as articles about nursing practice, public health, healthcare policy, and the healthcare industry. Through our reporting, we hope to inspire a movement toward a humane and just healthcare system for all. The magazine is published 10 times per year by CNA/NNOC, with combined issues in summer and winter.

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Q.89. Examination of the CSF of a 2 years old child supports the diagnosis of bacterial meningitis. The child is moderately dehydrated. The best approach to prescribing fluid therapy for this child would be to?
A. Restrict fluid to prevent the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone [SIADH].
B. Treat the dehydration immediately.
C. Consider the possibility of SIADH only if the child’s urine sodium concentration is greater than 60 mEq/l.
D. Treat the dehydration after antibiotic therapy has been provided for 24 hours.
E. None of the above.
Q.90. A 2 years old patient is brought to you because of snoring & Disturb sleep. You suspect upper airway obstruction with sleep apnea. Each of the following statements about this condition is true except?
A. Death can occur.
B. Cardiac failure may occur.
C. Systemic hypertension is an associated finding.
D. Pulmonary hypertension is an irreversible side effect.
E. None of the above.
Q.91. Of the following problems, the most common bleeding diathesis that would present as recurring epistaxis is?
A. Hemophilia A [factor VIII]
B. Hemophilia B [factor IX]
C. Hemophilia C [factor XI]
D. Hageman factor deficiency.
E. Von Willebrand disease.
Q.92. The control of blood sugar in juvenile diabetes mellitus is usually achieved by?
A. Short & intermediate insulin.
B. Long acting insulin.
C. Intermediate insulin.
D. Oral hypoglycemic.
E. Short acting insulin.
Q.93. The best source of iron for the 3 months old infant is?
A. Iron fortified cereals.
B. Yellow vegetable.
C. Fruits.
D. Breast milk.
E. 2% low fat cow’s milk.
Q.94. Among the following, the least likely risk factor for hearing loss is:
A. A maternal history of use of Phenytoin during pregnancy.
B. A family history of hearing impairment.
C. Craniofacial abnormality.
D. Birth weights less than 1500 Gms.
E. Neonatal hyperbilirubinemia.
Q.95. Protein losing gastro-enteropathy has been associated with all of the following except?
A. Cow milk protein.
B. Lymphangiectasia.
C. Granulomatous disease of intestine.
D. Ulcerative colitis.
E. Soy protein formula.
Q.96. Cellulites occurring about the face in young children [6 to 24 months] & associated with fever & a purple skin discoloration is most often caused by?
A. Group A beta hemolytic streptococci.
B. Haemophilus influenzae.
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
D. Staphylococcus aureus.
E. None of the above.
Q.97. All of the following might be possible etiologies for discoloration of the teeth of a 15 months old infant except?
A. Iron medication.
B. Dental decay.
C. Tetracycline given to mother during pregnancy.
D. Lactose free formula.
E. Important fluoride administration.
MCQ’S FOR MEDICAL PRACTETIONER
Q-1- 25 yrs old female pt C/O sudden attack of sever headaches a days ago with vomiting,diplopia & disturb sleep for fear of Brain tumor Ct scan, MRI, CSF are free, what is the most likely diagnosis?
1. Hypochondrial disorder.
2. Somatization disorder
3. Anxiety
4. -
5. -

Q-2- With regards to cephalosporin allergy, all of the following are true, except?
1. Skin test for allergy is available.
2. Drug sensitivity can occur
3. Cefacolor frequently use can be associated with serum sickness like syndrome
4. Cefaroxime can cause choledo-cholelithiasis like picture
5. -
Q-3- Regarding Phenytoin side effects, all of the following are true, except?
1. Can cause gingival hypertrophy
2. Macrocytosis
3. Ataxia
4. Osteomalasia
5. Osteoporosis
Q-4- Regarding Giardia infestation, all of the following are true, except?
1. Cause liver disease
2. Protein losing enteropathy
3. Proliferation in the terminal ileum.
4. -
5. -
Q-5- Female pt develop solitary benign tumor, H/P shows fissure in its nucleus, the tumor is most probable?
1. Benign
2. -
3. -
4. -
5. -
Q-6- About measles, all of the following are true, except?
1. Highly contagious
2. It slut with upper respiratory infection
3. Active immunization at the age of 9 months
4. Epidemic range of age is 3-5 yrs.
5. Symptomatic traetment is required
Q-7- With regarding to Thyrotoxic Goiter, all of the following are true, except?
1. Bruit can be osculated on thyroid
2. With treatment improves optico-------
3. Climbing stair may be difficult
4. Peritibial myxedema may occur
5. Atrial fibrillation may occur

Q-8- Hyponatremia can occur with, all of the following, except?
1. Increased vasopressin
2. CCF
3. Prolong diuretic use
4. Diabetes insipidus
5. -
Q-9- all of the following can cause seizure, except?
1. Hyponatremia
2. Hypourecaemia
3. Hypokalaemia
4. Hypoxia
5. -
Q-10- With regards of oral contraceptive, all of the following are true, except?
1. Thrombo-embolic tendency rather than atherosclerotic lesion are the cause of embolic manifestation.
2. It decreased incidence of ovarian tumor.
3. Increased incidence of Ca breast in pills user than non pills user.
4. Pt with previous pills user have more incidence to develop DVT
5. -
Q-11 – The pt develops rapidly progressive pelvic mass without bleeding the most probable diagnosis is?
1. Leiomyosarcoma
2. Fibroma
3. Adenocarcinoma.
4. -
5. -
Q-12 – All of the following are true, except?
1. Asymptomatic bacteriuria can affect about 10% of female.
2. Chemotherapy of bacteriuria can prophylaxis against pregnancy complication.
3. Female are more susceptible than males to UTI.
4. Up to 40% pt develop acute pyelonephritis without treatment
5. -
Q-13 – With regards to indication of CT scan in dementia, which one is not true?
1. Pt < 60 yrs of age
2. After head injury
3. H/O dementia 3 yrs ago
4. -
5. -
Q-14 – Serum ferritin reflect?
1. Total body iron
2. B/M iron store
3. Serum iron
4. -
5. -
Q-15 – In pre-renal failure?
1. Low urinary obstruction
2. Low cons of urinary Na
3. Free water excretion
4. -
5. -
Q-16 – Hashimotos thyroiditis, all of the following are true, except?
1. Decreased T4
2. Increased TSH
3. Increased cholesterol
4. Thyroid antibodies
5. -
Q-17 – Female patient presented with acute diarrhea after intake of refrigerated food, the following organism may be the causative agent?
1. Shigella
2. Salmonella
3. Campylobacter
4. Vibro cholera
5. E coli

Q-18 – With regards to Herpes Simplex virus type-I?
1. It is the commonest viral infection of the oral cavity.
2. Can give rise to gingio-stomatitis
3. In primary infection there is always systemic involvement
4. May be present with tonsillitis without oral lesion.-
5. -
Q-19 – In scabies infection, all of the following are true, except?
1. Rarely involve head & neck
2. 5% Lindane is effective
3. benzyl-benzo-benzoate is equally effective as lindane
4. itching occur 4-7 days after infestation
5. -
Q-20 – Interstitial lung disease is characterized by?
1. Hemoptysis
2. Fine basal rales
3. -
4. -
5. -
Q-21 – A 65yrs old patient with difficulty in swallowing food, all of the following are true, except?
1. Acid ingestion
2. Ca Esophagus
3. Reflex oesophagitis
4. Achalasia of esophagus
5. Motor neuron disease
Q-22 – Male patient with recent extensive MI present 3 days later with shock, pan systolic murmur, the most probable diagnosis is?
1. Ruptured VSD
2. Ruptured of papillary nodules
3. Ventricular aneurysm
4. Papillary muscles dysfunction
5. -
Q-23 – Female patient with incompetent Cervix Os seek medical acre with pregnancy 8 wks, the most probable management is?
1. Cervical circulage at the time of silting
2. Bed rest with circulage at 16-18 wks
3. Hormones therapy
4. -
5. -
Q-24 – WPW syndrome ECG finding, all of the following are true, except?
1. Delta waves
2. Long P-R interval
3. Wide QRS complex
4. -
5. -
Q-25 – Generalized lymphadenopathy are present in all of the following except?
1. Hepatitis C virus
2. Aids
3. CMV
4. Lymphoma
5. -
Q-26 – The most common cause of precousious puberty in girls is?
1. Idiopathic
2. Ovarian tumor
3. Increased B-HCG
4. Over estrogen production
5. -
Q-27 – Female patient presented 8-hrs after surgery, cyanosis, dysnoea, oligurea, ABG shows,
O2-82, CO2-23, HCO3-23, pH-72, the pt has?
1. Metabolic acidosis
2. Respiratory acidosis
3. Mixed respiratory alkalosis & metabolic acidosis
4. Mixed respiratory acidosis & metabolic alkalosis
5. Non of the above
Q-28 – With regards sub-lingual nitro glyceride, all of the following are true, except?
1. It causes pooling of venous blood
2. Increased coronary blood flow
3. Peak pharmacological action at 4-8min
4. Cause met-hemoglobinemia
5. Duration of action 10-30 min
Q-29 – With regards to H2 receptors antagonist in treatment of duodenal ulcer, all of the following are true, Except?
1. Alternate dose have a same effect as daily dose
2. No role of it in prophylaxis from NASID induced duodenal ulcer
3. Long term prophylactic therapy is not recommended
4. -
5. -
Q-30 – Infective Endocarditis is characterized by all of the following, except?
1. Osler’s node in finger pulp.
2. Anemia
3. Immune complex phenomenon [small emboli, ms hematuria]
4. Splinter hemorrhages on nail bed.
5. -
Q-31 – Rheumatoid Arthritis have, all of the following character, except?
1. Equal incidence in male & female
2. Cause joint deformity
3. Have positive R.A factor
4. -
5. -
Q-32 – Patient with acute MI with frequent PVCS the first line of management is?
1. Lignocain bolus [Lignocain 50mg bolus I/V repeat twice at 5 min interval if necessary
2. Than slow Lignocain infusion]
3. -
4. -
5. -
Q-33 – In patient with Aids depressed total T-cell count, predisposed to all of the following except?
1. Esophageal Carcinoma.
2. Monolial chest infection
3. TB
4. Lymphoma
5. -
Q-34 – With regards to stroke, all of the following are true, except?
1. In male pt 75 yrs old with AF should be contained on prophylactic anti-coagulant
2. AF with valvular heart disease can cause stroke
3. AF without valvular heart disease in 75 yrs old pt can lead to stroke
4. -
5. -
Q-35 – Acute sever asthma all of the following are true, Except?
1. ABC is not necessary done except if there is no response to primary treatment.
2. Aminophyline has a narrow safe therapeutic effect level
3. Inhalation corticosteroid should be given a large dose.
4. -
5. -
Q-36 – With regards to Eclampsia, all of the following are true, except?
1. Its common in primigravida
2. The use of barrier method of contraception can decreased the incidence.
3. It's more frequent in multigravida with same partner than those who have multiple partners.
4. -
5. -


Q-37 – Vestibular neuritis cause all except?
1. Dizziness
2. Vertigo
3. Mild to moderate neural deafness[acustic neuritis]
4. -
5. -
Q-38 – 30 yrs old male patient c/o dizziness especially when he moves his head from side to side,
which is the most appropriate cause?
1. acute lybrynthitis
2. vestibular neuritis
3. Miner's disease [vertigo, tinnitus, deafness]
4. Orthostatic hypotension
5. -
Q-39 – Young child with unilateral nasal discharge, foul odor, since one week, the diagnosis is?
1. Foreign body
2. Viral infection
3. Bacterial infection
4. Tumor
5. Polyp unilateral
Q-40 – Young child with grayish white membrane over the tonsils, fever, diagnosis may be all except?
1. Acute follicular tonsillitis
2. Vincent angina
3. Infectious mononucleosis
4. Candidiasis
5. Erysipelas
Q-41 – Use of vasoconstrictor nasal drop for long time may cause?
1. Allergic rhinitis
2. Perforated septum
3. Rebound phenomenon
4. Rhinitis Sciacca
5. -
Q-42 – Child with sever sensory neural nerve deafness you will do?
1. Place him in deaf school
2. Learn him lip reading
3. Use hearing aids
4. Learn him alone up to 6 yrs
5. -
Q-43 – Middle age male come with pain in right eye, saying he can not open his eye due to purulent discharge, diagnosis is?
1. Bacterial conjunctivitis
2. Viral conjunctivitis
3. Glaucoma
4. Uveitis
5. Pelberitis
Q-44 – 40 year's old male come with acute excruciating pain in one eye, nausea, vomiting, headache, the diagnosis is?
1. Acute glaucoma
2. Iriti sepis cleritis
3. Corneal ulcer
4. -
5. -
Q-45 – retinal changes in eye you will refer the pt to ophthalmologist?
1. Waxy changes at periphery
2. Plots & dots of Hemorrhages
3. Moculopathy
4. Exudates on retina
5. Nipping of retinal vessels


Q-46 – 35 yrs female come with sever pain in eye circum corneal injection with blurred vision, the probable diagnosis is?
1. Iritis
2. Episcleritis
3. Corneal ulcer
4. Glaucoma
5. Foreign body
Q-47 – Action of abducent nerve right & left, action of trochlear nerve right & left?
1. Diplopia
2. Convergence strabismus
3. -
4. -
5. -
Q-48 - Patient with ulcerative colitis, recurrent backache, when examined by ophthalmologist there was?
1. Photophobia on ophthalmoscope
2. Dilated pupil
3. Retinal haze
4. -
Q-49 – Metronidazole is the treatment of choice in all except?
1. E. Histolytica
2. Trichomonas vaginalis
3. Shigella vaginitis
4. Pseudo-membrane ulcerative colitis
5. -
Q-50 – Suicidal tendency is more in?
1. 30 yrs old female with previous tried for suicide
2. 50 yrs old male with previous tried for suicide
3. 35 yrs old male recently diagnosed as Aids
4. 25 yrs old female effected with RA
5. -
Q-51 - Middle age women with c/o anxiety about her & children health & worried about her job, on investigation her children are completely normal & she does well in her job, she has?
1. Generalized anxiety disease
2. Depression
3. Hypochondriasis
4. Schizophrenia
5. Somatic s/s of anxiety
Q-52 – Schizophrenia will be diagnosed by?
1. Primary delusion
2. Gustatory hallucination
3. Auditory hallucination
4. Somatization disorder[ common complains of female, pain, vomiting, nausea, headache,
5. Menstrual irregularities with -ive investigation]
Q-53 – 30 yrs old male anxious, worry, has insomnia, trouble his wife & impotence, there was good marital history before, on examination he is normal, what is the probable diagnosis?
1. Depression
2. Anxiety
3. Inhibit desire of sex
4. Conversion
5. -
Q-54 – Female C/O having cancer stomach & visited many doctors & did many investigations, barium, U/S all are normal, diagnosis is?
1. Anxiety
2. Hypochondria sis
3. Somatization
4. Schizophrenia
5.
Q-55 – Female patient C/O paralysis of both left limbs & paresthesia when examined she was stretched over bed & neurologist found every thing is normal & was told that she always beated by husband, diagnosis is?
1. Psychogenic paralysis
2. Hypochondria sis
3. Hysterical
4. Anxiety
5. Obsessive compulsive syndrome




Q-56 – Patient has a lesion on front of fore arm and was diagnosed lichen planus you will search for lesion also in?
1. mouth
2. extensor surface of knee & elbow
3. buttock
4. face
5. chest
Q-57 - Koebner’s phenomenon is found in all, except?
1. Lichen planus
2. Warts
3. Psoriasis
4. Moluscum contagiosum
5. Acne vulgaris
Q-58 – Acne rosicia is treated by?
1. Amoxicillin
2. Cephalosporin
3. Penicillin
4. clindamycin
5. Low dose tetracycline & erythromycin
Q-59 – H. Pylori treated with?
1. Omeprazole + amoxicillin + clarithromycin
2. Omeprazole + amoxicillin
3. Omeprazole + amoxicillin + flagyl
4. Amoxil + flagyl
5. Septran + Amoxil + flagyl
Q-60 – About Erythema multiformi true is?
1. female > male
2. affect face only
3. caused by virus
4. localized disease
5. buccal mucosa never involved
Q-61 – All causes Itching except?
1. Lichen planus
2. Eczema
3. Drug allergy
4. Herpetic form Erythema
5. -
Q-62 – Zry $ multiple ulcer seen in, except?
1. Zry $
2. Chanceroid
3. Bechet’s disease
4. Granuloma inguinalae
5. Lymphogranuloma venerum
Q-63 – Female with dysmenorrhea treated with mefanemic acid, no response 6 months, you will do?
1. stop mefenamic acid & start diclofen Na
2. continue mefenamic acid for further 6 months
3. give mefenamic acid + hyocine compound
4. put on contraceptive pills
5. injectable analgesic
Q-64 – Contraceptive pills is useful true except?
1. No thromboembolic complication
2. Can be use as treatment in dysfunctional uterine bleeding
3. Can be used in old age
4. -
Q-65 – Pregnant women 30 wks with brucellosis you will do?
1. Give symptomatic treatment till delivery
2. Give doxycyclin
3. give tetracycline
4. –-
Q-66 – Pregnant women 11 wks c/o nausea & vomiting once a day she is on iron therapy, best to do?
1. Stop iron
2. Give maxolon
3. Admitted to hospital
4. No treatment
5. -


Q-67 – When couple come to you searching for fertility?
1. You will ask them about sexual technique
2. Do laparoscopy to find out any abnormality & may be treated
3. Varicocele dose not cause infertility
4. -
5. -
Q-68 – Amenorrhea for 6m the most serous diagnosis can be done by?
1. Abdominal ultrasound
2. Serum B-HCG
3. Plane x-ray
4. CBC
5. Urine D/R
Q-69 – Married female searching for fertility for 18 yrs, she has amenorrhea 6 weeks with low Abdominal pain is examination left abdominal mass, best to do?
1. Serum B-HCG
2. Culdocentesis
3. Abdominal ultrasound
4. Plane X-ray pelvis
5. CT scan
Q-70 – New born with jaundice 2 day, wt 38 kg, normal baby with Hb-15gm%, retic - 4%, indirect Coomb's test negative, there is difference b/w baby & mother blood group diagnosis is?
1. Rh incompatibility
2. ABO incompatibility
3. Thalassemia
4. Septicemia
5. Sickle cell anemia
Q-71 – Normal healthy baby with jaundice at 3rd day, TB- 11mgdl, diagnosis is?
1. Hepatitis
2. Obstructive jaundice
3. Criglar najar syndrome
4. Dubin jonson syndrome
5. -
Q-72 – Baby with, drowsy, convulsion, depressed fontanels, no neck stiffness, you will do?
1. CBC
2. CSF
3. Blood C/S
4. X-ray chest
5. Urine D/R
Q-73 – Acid base balance, normal value?
1. PO2 90-105
2. PCO2 35-45
3. PH 734-742
4. HCO3 38-42
5. -

Q-74 – A young baby c/o redness, edema or pain in arm with fever, all of the following are true, except?
1. Staphlococcus is a likely the organism
2. It may leads to deep abscess
3. Lymphagenitis & lymphadenopathy may occur at hot side
4. Local antibiotic is sufficient for treatment
5. -
Q-75 – A young child referred by his mother c/o tonic colonic convulsion, the best anti Convulsion to give?
1. Phenytoin
2. barbiturate
3. diazepam
4. oral muscle relaxant
5. analgesic

Q-76 – To differentiate b/w depression & dementia is?
1. Withdrawal from society
2. Decreased attention
3. Headache
4. Loss of wt
5. -


Q-77 – Young child referred c/o wetting his cloth for days, he is controlled 4 yrs ago, what you will do?
1. Urine analysis & c/s
2. Cystoscopy
3. Ultrasound
4. Cystogram
5. Urine D/R
Q-78 – When lactic acid increased in the body try to decreased acidosis
1. by excretion of CO2 by lungs
2. by excretion of lactic acid by kidney
3. metabolism of lactic acid by liver
4. metabolism of chloride by kidney
5. -
Q-79 – Acne vulgaris moderated or sever is treated by?
1. Petiniac acid local
2. Isoretinoin oral
3. benzyl peroxide cream
4. -
5. -
Q-80 – Pitting of finger nail seen in all except?
1. Psoriasis
2. Marked underlying malignancy
3. Lichen planus
4. Trauma
5. Alopecia areata
Q-81 – Baby with fever 38.4 C, distress, retraction sub costal & intercostals after URTI 2 days, cough with sound on examination breathing sound resembles passing of air in URT?
1. Viral pneumonia
2. Broncholitis
3. Bacterial pneumonia
4. Asthma
5. Foreign body

Q-82 – Anti-coagulant in lactating female?
1. Heparin
2. warfarin
3. Asprin
4. -
5.
Q-83 – Female complain of vulvitis , itching, crude thick discharge, diagnosis is?
1. Candidiasis
2. Chlamydia
3. Allergic
4. Trichomonas
5. Bacterial
Q-84 – Female with thin homogenous vaginal discharge without itching, diagnosis is?
1. Candidiasis
2. Chlamydia
3. Viral
4. Trichomonas
5. Bacterial
Q-85 – 60 yrs old male with chronic bronchial asthma on cortisone inhalation therapy, you want to add theophylin your fear of?
1. Gastric upset
2. Cardiac arrhythmia
3. -
4. -
5. -
Q-86 – Young male child complain of piteacheal ecchymosis, platelet decreased and hemoglobin decreased, treated by?
1. Prednisolone
2. Blood transfusion
3. Platelet transfusion
4. -
5. -
Other Questions=
Q1 – Patient present with left thigh inflexion, adduction & internal rotation, what is the diagnosis?
A. Impacted acetabular fracture
B. Anterior hip dislocation
C. Posterior hip dislocation
D. Sub capital fracture of the femur
E. Sacro-iliac separation
Q-2 – Hypokalaemia may be seen in all of the following except? Metabolic acidosis [In metabolic alkalosis not in m/b acidosis]
A. Furosemide therapy
B. Renal tubular acidosis
C. Hyper Aldosteronism
D. vomiting & diarrhea
Q-3 – 30 years old man came with complain of upper abdominal pain & dyspepsia, which of the following does not support the diagnosis of peptic ulcer?
A. Hunger pain
B. Heart burn
C. Epigastric mass
D. Epigastric pain relationship with meals[ Dyspepsia]
E. History of hematemesis
Q-4 – 82 years old male patient came with complain of acute urine retention, the best management for this patient is?
A. To take him to OT as an emergency & do the prostectomy.
B. Admission, investigation which include Cystoscopy, then possible TUR.
C. Give antibiotic b/c this retention may be due to infection & ask him to come back the clinic.
D. Empty the bladder by Foleys catheter & tell him to come back.
E. Insert Foleys catheter, send him home, ask him to come back the clinic later.
Q-5 – Stress ulceration is seen in all of the following except?
A. Burns
B. CNS lesion
C. Alcohol ingestion
D. Salicylate ingestion
E. Penicillin administration
Q-6 – Which of the following statement is true in pregnancy with DM?
A. There is increased risk of oligo Hydromnios
B. Insulin requirement remain unchanged in pregnancy
C. In the new born hypoglycemia may occur after delivery
D. Rarely cause fetal death
E. It can cause hyper calcemia in new born
Q-7 – A 10 years old girl present with 2 days history of fever & 4 cm mass tender & fluctuant left anterior cervical lymph node, the most likely diagnosis is?
A. Hodgkin’s disease
B. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
C. Histocytosis
D. Acute bacterial lymphadenitis
E. Metastatic neuroblastoma
Q-8 – Which of the following statement best characterized the diagnosis of UTI in children?
A. The presence of fever localized infection to renal parenchyma
B. Diagnosis is likely if there is pyurea more then 10 WBC / hpf.
C. Diagnosis is likely if sterile specimen show 100,000 organism of a single species
D. Diagnosis is difficult because the typical causative organism grow poorly in culture
E. Vpsko uretric reflex localized infection to lower UTI.
Q-9 – Which of the following S/S should not relate to teething is?
A. Diarrhea
B. Rhinorrhea
C. Decrease appetite
D. Irritability
E. Fever of 39 C
Q-10 – Fecal leucocytes are not found in increased number in patient with?
A. Giardiasis
B. Shigellosis
C. Idiopathic ulcerative colitis
D. Clindamycin associated colitis
E. Enterocolitis
Q-11 – Known consequences of pelvic inflammatory diseases include all of the following except?
A. Dyspareunia
B. Ectopic pregnancy
C. Endometriosis
D. Infertility
E. Menstrual disturbance
Q-12 – Healthy 5 years old girl, sudden onset of hematuria which persists for 2 days, all of the following are reasonable immediate steps in the evaluation of the patient except?
A. Hemoglobin electrophoresis to exclude hemoglobinopathies
B. Cystoscopy to establish the site of bleeding
C. BUN & Cr measurement
D. Urine culture
E. Reveal U/S to access renal anatomy.
Q-13 – In infant 6m with sepsis, most likely diagnosis is?
A. Listeria cytogenous
B. Hemophilus influenzea
C. B Streptococcus hemolyticus
D. Staphlococcus aureus
E. E coli
Q-14 – UTI in children diagnosed by?
A. Isolation of organism with colony count 100,000 of the same organism.
B. -
C. -
D. -
E. -
Q-15 – Hypokalaemia occurs in all of the following except?
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Acute tubular necrosis
C. Diuretic therapy.
D. Hyper aldosteronism
E. Cushing syndrome
Q-16 – In ARF all of the following are present except?
A. Uremia
B. Phosphataemia
C. Increased potassium in serum
D. Decreased calcium in serum
E. Decreased bicarbonate in serum
Q-17 – Patient with partial thickness of burn?
A. It is sensitive
B. It is insensitive
C. It will change to slough within 2-3 wks
D. Need split graft
E. Need free flap
Q-18 – Female 6 years child from Jezan with hematuria all investigation needed except?
A. Hb sickling test
B. Hb electrophoresis
C. Urine examination
D. U/S abdomen to see changes in glomerulous
E. Cystoscopy
Q-19 – A male boy came to you with C/O cola color urine, with streptococcal throat infection 3 weeks ago, what is best for diagnosed a post streptococcal glomerulonephritis?
A. RBC cast
B. Increased creatinine
C. Decreased C3
D. Shrunken kidney on U/S
E. Increased ASOT
Q-20 – The following drugs can be used in lactation except?
A. Amphetamine
B. Digitalis
C. -
D. -
E. -
Q-21 – Iron poisoning?
A. Vomiting, bloody diarrhea
B. Bleeding gum
C. Tenesmus
D. Convulsion
E. Hallucination
Q-22 – Hypocalcaemia occur in all of the following except?
A. Chronic pancriatitis
B. Pseudo parathyroidism
C. Cushing syndrome
D. CRF
E. -
Q-23 – 3 years child can do the following except?
A. Hopping on one foot
B. Draw a circle
C. Speak in sentences & give full name
D. Building tower of cubes
E. Eat with spoon * folk
Q-24 – Salicylate poisoning ?
A. Antidote should be taken within 16 hrs.
B. If come persist 24 hrs indicate hepatic encephalopathy.
C. If hepatic encephalopathy not occur there is liver cirrhosis
D. --
E. --
Q-25 – Chorio-carcinoma metstatic occur?
A. Liver
B. Lung
C. Brain
D. Ovary
E. Bone
Q-26 – Cyanotic heart disease in the first week with axis deviation?
A. Tricuspid atresia
B. Transportation of great vessels
C. Fallots of tetralogy
D. -
E. -
Q-27 – Cyanotic heart disease associated with decreased pulmonary function?
A. Tricuspid atresia
B. Transportation of great vessels
C. Fallots of tetra logy
D. Complete pulmonary stenosis
E. -
Q-28 – Villous Carcinoma of the vulva simulate clinically?
A. Carbuncle of urethra
B. -
C. -
D. -
E. -
Q-29 – Ovarian tumor common persisting symptom is?
A. Chronic abdominal pain
B. Abdominal distension
C. CVA
D. Pulmonary embolism
E. DIC
Q-30 – Tumor marker is detected in?
A. Mature teratoma
B. Ca cervix
C. Immature teratoma
D. Mature teratoma + Ca cervix
E. Immature teratoma + Ca cervix
Q-31 – Microcytic hypo chromic anemia occur with the following except?
A. Iron deficiency anemia
B. Sideroblastic anemia
C. Scurvy
D. B-thelassemia minor
E. Lead poisoning
Q-32 – Iodine uptake by thyroid at gestation age?
A. 4-6 wks
B. 6-8 wks
C. 8-10 wks
D. 8-12 wks
E. 36 wks
Q-33 – Female with cervical incompetence at 8 wks of pregnancy treatment is?
A. -
B. -
C. -
D. –

Q-34 – Gonadoblastoma is formed by?
A. Germs cells
B. Sex cord stroma
C. -
D. -
E. -
Q-35 – Ovarian tumor with bifid muscles?
A. Brener’s tumor
B. -
C. -
D. -
E. -
Q-36 – Serum amylase increased in all excepts?
A. Acute pancreatic
B. Acute cholecystitis
C. Chronic pancriatitis
D. Acute appendicitis.
E. None
Q-1 – 50 years old female c/o loss of recent preference for cold & palpitation, O/E firm swelling over the anterior neck present for 5 yrs, the most accurate diagnosis is?
A. Simple goiter
B. Diffuse toxic goiter [Grave's disease]
C. Toxic nodular goiter
D. Parathyroid gland adenoma
E. Carotid body tumor
Q-2 – Etiological factor that should be evaluated in a patient with Habitual abortion include all except?
A. Genetic abnormality
B. Rubella infection
C. Uterine abnormality
D. Luteal phase defect
E. Thyroid gland dysfunction
Q-3 – In conscious multiple trauma patient your priority are?
A. To stop bleeding then IV fluid
B. To secure air entry breathing then BP
C. To start an IV fluid & send blood for cross matching
D. To intubate the patient.
E. To do the peritoneal lavage then IV fluid
Q-4 – 36 years old obese man c/o poly urea, weight loss, and urine analysis shows glycosuria, negative for ketone, FBS-280 mg/dl, the most suitable treatment is?
A. Intermittent IM insulin until patient stable.
B. NPH insulin 30 units daily with diabetic diet
C. Sulphonyl urea & diabetic diet.
D. Metaformin.
E. None of the above.
Q-5 – 5 years old boy with leukemia on chemotherapy Becomes febrile to 395 C approximate Response would include all of the following except?
A. Administer aspirin for the fever & observe for temp response
B. Obtained blood culture
C. Obtained chest x-ray
D. Obtained urine culture
E. Start Iv broad spectrum anti-biotic
Q-6 – A 3rd heart sound S3 is typical finding in all of the following except?
A. Tricuspid regurgitation
B. Young healthy athlete
C. Thyrotoxicosis
D. Left ventricular failure
E. Mitral stenosis
Q-7 – 40 years old female with rheumatic heart & mitral valve disease, she has chronic Atrial fibrillation for 6 months, all of the following are indicated except?
A. Electrical cardio version.
B. Warfarin.
C. Digoxin.
D. Echocardiogram.
E. Advised regarding prophylaxis of infective Endocarditis.
Q-8 – 24 years old man has fixation of fractured right femur, 2 days later he becomes dyspnic & had chest pain, Hemoptysis, ABG shows pH-75, PO2-25, which of the following is suitable for management?
A. Frusemide
B. Hydrocortisone
C. Ampicillin
D. Heparin
E. Aminophyline
Q-9 – The following are the sign of CCF in children except?
A. Bounding peripheral pulse
B. Gallop rhythm
C. Basal lung crepitations
D. Hepatomegaly
E. Peri orbital edema
Q-10 – The following are accepted therapeutic option in endometriosis except?
A. Pregnancy
B. Danazol
C. Surgical removal
D. Radiotherapy
E. Progesterone
Q-11 – Cord prolapsed is associated with all of the following condition except?
A. Malpresentation
B. Multiple pregnancy
C. Pre-term premature rupture of membrane
D. Oligo-hydromnios
E. Rupturing of membrane when the head is high
Q-12 – New born infant with abnormal neurological examination it is suspected that he differed Prenatal asphyxia, all of the following complication of pregnancy are risk factors for prenatal asphyxia except?
A. Placental abruption
B. Hyper emesis gravid arum
C. Prematurity
D. Pre-eclampsia
E. Me conium stained amniotic fluid
Q-13 – An infant come with mother to clinic with H/O bleeding per rectum, the most likely diagnosis is?
A. Polyp of he rectum
B. Mickel’s diverticulum's
C. Fissure in ano
D. Intussuption
E. Ulcerative colitis
Q-14 – The following are typically associated with placenta praevia, except?
A. Painless bleeding.
B. Mal presentation.
C. Multiparity.
D. Shock is out of proportion to the amount of bleeding.
E. Non engagement of presenting parts.
Q-15 – Hemorrhagic diathesis following multiple blood transfusions is most likely due to?
A. Platelet depletion
B. Decrease in fibrinogen
C. Decrease in prothrombin
D. Increase in fibrinolytic activity
E. Decrease of calcium
Notes: [complication of massive transfusion is à decrease platelets, calcium, clotting factors, Increase potassium, hypothermia]
Q-16 – 26 years old patient c/o headache, fatigue, Hb-8 gm/dl, MCV-85, retic-10%, of the following investigation the least useful is?
A. Coomb’s test
B. Sickling test
C. Serum bilirubin
D. Serum iron
E. Hb electrophoresis
Q-17 – Biochemical alteration is seen in acute renal failure may include all of the following except?
A. Elevated serum phosphatase
B. Hypourecaemia
C. Hyperkalaemia
D. Elevated serum acid phosphatase
E. Low serum bicarbonate
Q-18 – The following statement about management of UTI in pregnancy are correct except?
A. Asymptomatic bacteriuria should be treated
B. The most common organism is E coli
C. Gentamycin is usually the drug of choice
D. Pyelonephritis can cause septic shock
E. Placenta always should be ruled out
Q-19 – Laparoscopy is indicated in all of the following condition except?
A. Suspected endometriosis
B. Chronic pelvic pain
C. Primary amenorrhea
D. Intestinal obstruction
E. Infertility
Q-20 – DIC may be associated with all of the following except?
A. Pre eclampsia
B. Acute inversion of uterus
C. Abruptio placenta
D. Intra uterine fetal death
E. Diabetes Mellitus.
Q-21 – A young patient come with abdominal pain, the diagnosis of appendicitis is likely if there is?
A. Elevated temperature.
B. Elevated WBC.
C. Rectal bleeding.
D. Tenderness, right lower quadrant with rebound.
E. Urinary symptom.
Q-22 – The following statement about multiple pregnancy are true except?
A. Dizygotic twins are more common than monozygotic twins
B. Twin to twin transfusion is only seen with dizygotic pregnancy
C. Can be diagnosed by U/S
D. Maternal physiology changes are exaggerated compared to single pregnancy
E. Congenital abnormality are more as compared to single pregnancy
Q-23 – Healthy Saudi children routinely immunized against all of the following except?
A. Pertusis
B. Tuberculosis.
C. Mumps.
D. H Influenza type-B
E. Diphtheria.
Q-24 – A 5 years old boy has 1 day cola color urine with RBC cast, two weeks ago positive culture strepto coccus tonsillitis the single best evidence of diagnosed post streptococcal glomerulo-nephritis is?
A. BP above 95 the percentile for ge
B. Positive ASOT
C. Mildly elevated BUN & Creatinine.
D. Negative ANA, HIV & hepatic profile
E. Decreased C3
Q-25 – Complication of obstetric hemorrhage include all of the following except?
A. Irreversible maternal shock
B. Maternal death
C. Fetal death
D. ARF
E. SLE like syndrome
Q-26 – 18 months old child found to have dental decay in the upper central & lateral incisures this is most suggestive of?
A. Excessive fluoride intake
B. Milk bottle cause
C. Tetracycline exposure
D. Insufficient fluoride intake
E. Failure to brush the child teeth properly
Q-27 – Recent weight loss suggests diagnosis of the following except?
A. Thyrotoxicosis
B. Aids
C. Nephrotic syndrome
D. Nephrotic disease
E. Pulmonary TB

Q-28 – All of the following are complication of systemic hypertension except?
A. Intra cerebral hemorrhage
B. Renal artery stenosis
C. Sub dural hemorrhage
D. Lacunars infarcts of internal capsule
E. Left ventricular hypertrophy
Q-29 – 8 years old girls C/O bruises all over the body, leg pain, O/E pallor, ecchymosis & petichiae on the face, WBC-2800/mm3, platelet count 29,000/ mm3, which of the following would be the most suitable diagnostic test?
A. Hb Electrophoresis
B. Bone marrow aspiration
C. ESR
D. Skeletal survey
E. Liver & spleen survey
Q-30 – All of the following condition indicate sever pregnancy include hypertension, except?
A. Pulmonary edema
B. Thrombocytopenia
C. Polyurea
D. Exaggerated reflexes
E. Right upper quadrant pain
Q-31 – Urinalysis may provide useful information about the following renal function except?
A. Renal phosphate handling.
B. Renal protein loss.
C. Renal concentrating capacity.
D. Possible UTI.
E. Possible glomerulo nephritis.
Q-32 – Which of the following is not associated with high amniotic fluid alpha fetoprotein concentration?
A. Anencephaly
B. Meningomyocele
C. Gestroschesis
D. Spinobifida
E. Breech presentation
Q-1 – Secondary hyper lipidemia can be develop due to each of the following except?
A. Hyperthyroidism
B. Nephrotic syndrome
C. Estrogen therapy
D. Alcoholism
E. Hypertension
Q-2 – Which of the following drugs shown to reduce mortality if patient with CCF?
A. Digitalis
B. Frusemide
C. Enalapril
D. Procainamide
E. Aspirin
Q-3 – A 60 years old man came with chest pain of 3 hrs duration associated with ST elevation Lead-II, III & AVF, the heart rate was 46/ min, BP 90/60 mmHg, the initial treatment is?
A. Atropine
B. Isoprenaline
C. Dopamine
D. Temporary pacemaker
E. -
Q-5 - A 48 years old man is admitted to ICU with acute inferior MI after 2 hours BP 86/52 mmHg, heart rate 40/ min with sinus arrhythmia, which of the following is suitable treatment?
A. Immediately insertion of temporary trans venous pacemaker
B. I/V administration of atropine sulphate 06mg
C. Administration of saline
D. I/V administration of sulbutamine 35mg/min
E. I/V administration of isoproternol 50 mg/min
Q-6 – All of the following are true about Grave’s disease, Except?
A. Opthalomo-pathy invariably respond to anti-thyroid therapy.
B. Pre tibial myxedema is a feature.
C. Arterial fibrillation may occur.
D. Patient may have difficulty in climbing stairs.
E. There is often a bruit heard over the thyroid gland.
Q-7 – A 65 years old man presented with difficulty in swallowing food, cause of this condition Include all except?
A. Carcinoma of esophagus.
B. Reflex oesophagitis
C. Cardiac Achalasia
D. Motor neuron disease
E. Herpes oesophagitis
Q-8 - 64 years old man admitted to CCU with anterior wall infarction, on the third day there is Sudden detoriation in patient status, characterized by rapid onset of right & left side carcinogenic Shock, O/E a new harsh systolic murmur is audible, loudest on left sternal border compared by thrill, what is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Papillary muscles dysfunction
B. Pericarditis
C. Rupture of intra-ventricular aneurysm
D. Right ventricular infarction
E. Left ventricular infarction
Q-9 – Acute glucoma, all are true except?
A. It suspected a miotic should be installed prior to refered
B. Headache are typical
C. Has shown to cause abdominal pain
D. Haloes around light & blurred vision uncommonly preced the attack
E. A glucomatous pupil is typically larger then other pupil
Q-10 – The important clinical finding in acute pancriatitis is?
A. Rebound tenderness
B. Presence of some relief on binding forward or maintaining a sitting position
C. Guarding of abdomen
D. Hypoactive bowel sound
E. Abdominal pain
Q-11 – A 24 yrs old man presented with one day history of headache fever, O/E restless, avoid light, neck is persistent to be flexed, which of the following line of treatment is correct?
A. X- ray cervical spine
B. EEG
C. ANA
D. Phenytoid
E. Non of the above
Q-12 – Plasma ferritin is reflection of?
A. RBC mass
B. Total body iron store
C. Hepatic iron content
D. B/M iron store
E. None of the above
Q-13 – A 26 yrs old man presented with headache, fatigue, investigation revealed, Hb- 8 gm//dl, MCV-85, retic 10%, the following investigation are useful except?
A. Coomb’s test
B. Sickling test
C. Serum bilirubin
D. Serum iron
E. Hb electrophoresis
Q-14 – The following may induce seizure except?
A. Hypoxia
B. Hypourecaemia
C. Hypokalaemia
D. Hyponatremia
E. Hypocalcaemia
Q-15 – The following diseases are recognized causes of high output cardiac failure except?
A. Paget’s disease
B. Thyrotoxicosis
C. Hypertension
D. Arterio venous fistula
E. Iron deficiency anemia

Note: cardio myopathy, ischemia, MI, as low out put failure.

Q-16 – A 30 yrs old man c/o generalized fatigue ability for 2 months, O/E generalized lymph adenopathy,
D/D of this case include all of the following except?
A. Lymphoma
B. HIV infection
C. HCV
D. Infectious mononucleosis
E. Toxoplasmosis
Q-17 – Obstructed jaundice is associated with all except?
A. Elevated indirect serum bilirubin
B. Elevated direct serum bilirubin
C. Uro bilinogenaemia is almost always present
D. Presence of bilirubinaemia
E. Elevated alkaline phosphatase
Q-18 – In RA, all are true except?
A. Causes destruction of articular cartilage
B. Is frequently associated with HLA-DR4
C. Is equally common in males & females
D. Is characterized by the presence of nodules
E. Can involved any synovial joint in the body
Q-19 – Which of the following indicate pre-renal failure?
A. Casts in the urine
B. Low urine osmolality [<400 mmmol/l]
C. Low urine sodium concentration[<20mmol//l]
D. Low free water excretion
E. Microscopic hematuria
Q-20 – Hyponatremia occur in the following condition except?
A. Primary adrenocortical insufficiency
B. CCF
C. Diabetic ketoacidosis with very high blood sugar
D. Excessive production of vasopressin
E. Diabetes insipidus
Q-21 – All of the following are causes of hypocalcaemia except?
A. Primary hyperthyroidism
B. Familial benign hyper calcaemia
C. Malignancy
D. Cushing syndrome
E. Granulomatous disorder [sarcoidosis]
Q-22 – About Germen measles [Rubella]?
A. Has an incubation period of 3-5 days
B. Usually begins with high fever
C. Its cause arthritis
D. Cause of oral ulceration
E. Does not cause cardiac abnormality & deafness in fetus
Q-23 – Viral hepatitis?
A. In most of the cases due to HbsAg
B. Is more likely to lead to chronic hepatitis after recovery from an acute fulminating attack than
C. After a milder illness when associated with cholelithiasis & pruritis carries a bad prognosis.
D. HbsAg is found in about 20% pt with Polyarthritis nodosa
E. Its always associated with joint pain in the prodromal phase
Q-24 – Each of the following statement about HbsAg is true except
A. In HbsAg +ive mother there is very high probability of transmission to new born.
B. Antenatal screening for HbsAg viru should be carried out only in high risk group
C. Less common risk factor for hepatitis B virus include multiple episodes of veneral disease & as a blood donor
D. Injection of hepatitis-B immunoglobin is indicated in person exposed to accidental pin prick of positive patient.
Q-25 – About allopurinol [zyloric] all are true except?
Its of value in acute phase.
A. Is uricosuric.
B. Is contraindicated in patient with renal failure.
C. Action is antagonized by salicyalate.
D. Reduce the risk of uric acid stone
Q-26 – About skin pigmentation all are true except?
Pregnancy
A. Addison’s disease
B. Hemochromatosis
C. Neurofibromatosis
D. Cirrhosis
E. Chronic arsenic poisoning
Q-27 – Essential diagnosis of Psoriasis all are true except?
A. Silvery scales on bright red, well demarcated plaque, usually on the knee, elbow & scalp
B. Nail finding including pitting & oncholysis[separation of the nail plate from the bed]
C. Mild itching usually
D. May be associated with psoriatic arthritis
E. Histopathology is diagnostic
Q-28 – D / D of acute appendicitis include the following except?
A. Mittle schinerz disease
B. Carcinoma of caecum
C. Pelvic inflammatory disease
D. Diverticulitis
E. Mesenteric lymphadenitis
Q-29 – The greatest metabolic activity of the thyroid hormone due to?
A. Thyroxine
B. Mon iodotyrosine
C. Di iodotyrosine
D. Tri iodothyroxine [T3]
E. Thyroglobulin
Q-30 – Complication of osteomyelitis include the following except?
A. Septic arthritis
B. Arrest of bone growth
C. Pyomyositis
D. Septicemia
E. Destruction of epiphyseal plate
Q-31– Which of the following congenital heart disease is associated with lowest risk of infective endocarditis?
A. PDA
B. Tetralogy of fallot
C. Sub valvular aortic stenosis
D. ASD
E. VSD
Q-32 – All of the following statement regarding the association [formerly] campylobacter pylori and gastritis are true except?
A. Growth of H pylori in the stomach is believed to be a cause of chronic gastritis where as growth in the duodenum is not clear.
B. H pylori is a gram negative bacilli that invade gastric mucosa, there by producing mucosal inflammation
C. H Pylori can be identified by its ability to clear urea.
D. Eradication of the bacteria result in histological improvement of mucosa..
E. Ampicillin or metronidazole can be eradicate H pylori
Q-33 – The single feature bets distinguish crohn’s disease from ulcerative colitis is?
A. Presence of ileac disease.
B. Cigarette smoking history.
C. Presence of disease in the rectum.
D. Non caseating granuloma.
E. Crypt abscess.
Q-34 – Blistering bulae rashes occurs in the following except?
A. Erythema multiform
B. Barbiturate over dose
C. Dermatitis herpetiforms
D. Erythema nod sum
E. Allergy to sulphonamides
Q-35 – Each of the following simulate acute abdomen except??
A. Tonsillitis
B. Pleurisy
C. Polyarthritis nodosa
D. Herpes zoster
E. Myocardial infarction
Q-36 – Each of the following statement about spontaneous abortion is true except?
A. The risk of spontaneous abortion increased with maternal age
B. Sensitive pregnancy test may remain positive after 2 weeks of fetal death
C. Death of embryo usually proceeds vaginal bleeding in early pregnancy loss.
D. A sever co-agulation disorder complicating a missed abortion will usually occur within fewer weeks of fetal death.
E. None of the above.
Q-37 – Correct statement concerning Wilm’s tumor include all of the following except?
A. The average age at diagnosis is 1-3 years
B. The presenting symptom is an abdominal mass
C. Pulmonary metastasis is common
D. The cure rate in the absence of metastasis is high
E. The cure rate in the presence of metastasis is low.
Q-38 – Each of the following statement about post pills amenorrhea is true except??
A. It is more common in women with history of menstrual irregularity.
B. The incidence rises with increased duration of use of oral contraceptive
C. Full investigation is necessary if it persist more than 6 months
D. Pregnancy should be considered in differential diagnosis.
E. Non of the above
Q-39 – Aluminum & calcium salt inhibit the intestinal absorption of which of the following agent?
A. Isoniazide
B. Chloramphinicol
C. Phenoxy methyl penicillin
D. Erythrocin
E. Tetracycline
Q-40 – A young man taken refrigerator food, 3 hours later he develop watery diarrhea, which of the following is the cause?
A. Shigella
B. Salmonella
C. Compylobacter
D. Staphlococcus
E. Giardia
Q-41 – In mitral stenosis the following may be seen except?
A. P neutral on ECG
B. Double contour of right border of heart [due to leftatrial enlargement]
C. LVF
D. RVF
E. Atrial fibrilation
Q-42 – Giardiasis?
A. Involve mainly the terminal ileum & colon
B. It is more common in hypo gamma globinaemic patient
C. Liver abscess is a recognized complication
D. It is best treated by mebendazole
E. May cause lower GIT bleeding
Q-43 – The commonest cause of acute pancriatitis in adult in our country is?
A. Unknown
B. Parasite
C. Mumps virus
D. Biliary stone
E. Ethanol
Q-44 – 16 years old women pregnant is at high risk for the following problems except?
A. Premature deliveries
B. Pelvic complication
C. Toxemia
D. Low birth weight
E. Increased prenatal death rate
Q-45 – Uncomplicated seasonal allergic rhinitis is associated with the following except?
A. Nasal & palatal pruritis.
B. Thin watery nasal discharge.
C. Redness nasal mucosa & cervical adenopathy.
D. Paroxysmal sneezing.
E. Excess lacrimation.
Q-46 – Treatment of all the family is required when the following disease is detected in one of the family members?
A. Malaria.
B. Schistosomiasis.
C. Hook worm infestation.
D. Scabies.
E. All of the above.


Q-47 – A 2 months old child was found to be jaundiced to have an enlarge cirrhotic liver, ascities, diagnosis is?
A. Gilbert’s syndrome
B. Crigler Najjar syndrome
C. Dubin Johnson syndrome
D. Congenital billiary atresia
E. Sickle cell disease
Q-1 – Typhoid fever can be characterized by all of the following except?
A. The illness usually acquired from ingestion of contaminated food, water or milk.
B. Leucopenia is more common than leucocytosis in acutely ill pt
C. Rose spot are usually present at the time of fever start
D. Chloramphinicol is not effective in preventing relapse
E. Quinolone antibiotics eradicate the organism even in the presence of gall stones
Q-2 – 40 years old Phillipino man has hypo pigmented macular lesion & palpably enlarged lunar nerve, the diagnosis of leprosy can be best established by?
A. Positive lepromin test
B. Culture of organism on material obtained by skin biopsy
C. Development of Erythema & swelling of the lesion after a trial of dapsone therapy
D. Demonstration of acid fast organism in skin lesion
E. None of the above, leprosy is a clinical diagnosis.
Q-3 – Which of the following is a usual feature of interstitial lung disease like fibrosing alveolitis?
A. Fever
B. Hemoptysis
C. Generalized wheeze
D. Purulent sputum
E. Fine crepitations
Q-4 – What is the drug of choice in exercise induce asthma
A. Theophyline
B. Atropine
C. Isoproternol
D. Cotrimaxazole
E. Prednisolone
Q-5 – 18 months old boy, his mother concerned about speech, he say mama & baba only, he is healthy since birth, evaluation of this child should begin with?
A. Physical examination
B. Chromosome examination
C. Hearing evaluation
D. Development testing
E. CT scan of the head
Q-6 – Which of the following diseases is usually increased maternal mortality when occur in pregnancy?
A. Syphilis
B. Biliary cholestasis
C. Phechromocytoma
D. Herpes genitalis
E. Toxoplasmosis
Q-7 – Baby born at term, immediately after delivery he develop sever respiratory failure, breath sound decreased bilaterally, abdomen is flat, X-ray chest multiple cystic masses in the left side of chest, mediastenum shift to right, its likely syndrome is?
A. Respiratory distress syndrome
B. Diaphragmatic hernia
C. Congenital lobar emphysema
D. Persistence fetal circulation
E. -
Q-8 – Concerning obstructed labor?
A. More common in primigravida
B. Excessive caput & molding are recognized sign
C. Its common in occipito-anterior position
D. Oxytocin is indicated in its management
E. Can be diagnosed early before onset of labor.
Q-9 – 15 years old boy, diagnosed partial thickness burn of skin, which of the following statement is true about the burn?
A. Its sensitive
B. Its insensitive
C. Its required split skin graft
D. It will separate as a slough in 2-3 wks
E. Its require a free flap graft
Q-10 – 30 years old man c/o left side weakness 3 hrs duration, o/e pulse-90/min irregular, BP-120/70 mmHg, diastolic murmur in mitral area, on left side hemiperesis, the most likely treatment is?
A. Heparin
B. Digoxin
C. Lumber puncture
D. EEG
E. Cardio angiography
Q-11 – Which of the following is the best for Acute Gouty arthritis?
A. Allopurinol
B. Penicillinoid
C. Indomethacin
D. Gold salt
E. Paracetamol
Q-12 – About Infertility?
A. Is failure to conceive after 6m of trail
B. Is due to an ovulation in minority of case
C. Can be due to high Prolactin level
D. Due to F tube problem, can only be diagnosed by histo-salphingiography.
E. Is due to male factor in majority of case
Q-13 – 5 years old girl presented with 5 days fever and chills, P/F positive for MP, in which of the Following statement is correct?
A. Banana shaped gametocytes present in P Vivax
B. Treatment should be started immediately with Primaquine 10 mg/kg for 3 days
C. Thrombocytopenia is not a feature of Malaria & should make you suspect another diagnosis.
D. P Falciparum is the most likely malaria species
E. Respond to anti-malarial therapy usually tale 72 hrs or more.
Q-14 – Secondary amenorrhea?
A. Is rarely due to an ovulation
B. Can be due to gonadal agenesis
C. Is part of Sheehan's syndrome
D. Its commonly due to Turner's syndrome
E. Its always pathological
Q-15 – Regarding to breach presentation, the following are true except?
A. The incidence after 36 wks is 22%
B. Intracranial hemorrhage is known complication of delivery
C. Is some time associated with congenital uterine anomalies
D. Prematurity is known predisposing factor
E. Its an abnormal presentation
Q-16 – All of the following are useful in the therapy of unstable angina pectoris, except?
A. Heparin drip
B. Aspirin
C. IV nitroglyceride
D. Beta blocker therapy
E. Enalapril
Q-17 – In childhood TB, important diagnostic points include all of the following, except?
A. A history of contact with the disease
B. A positive tuberculin test
C. AFB positive in gastric levage
D. Abnormal X-ray chest
E. significant spleen enlargement


Q-18 – The first drug to be used after commencing cardio-pulmonary resuscitation in a child With?
A. Atropine
B. Adrenaline
C. Lidocane
D. Na-barbiturate
E. Ca-chloride
Q-19 – Fibroid & pregnancy?
A. Can leads to sever anemia
B. Commonly leads to anti-partum hemorrhage
C. Should be remove surgically
D. Is most likely to regress after delivery
E. Is commonly complicated by torsion
Q-20 – Which of the following polyp's is generally considered pre malignant?
A. Pedunculated polyp
B. Villous adenoma
C. Polypoid adenoma
D. Juvenile polyp
E. Pseudo polyp
Q-21 – 6 months old lethargic infant is brought to emergency, with temp- 39 C, which organism Can cause sepsis in the child??
A. Staphylococcus epidermidis
B. Listeria monocytogenous
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Streptococcus group-B
E. Hemophilus influenza typ-B
Q-22 – In congenital dislocation of hip joint, the following statement is true?
A. The diagnosis is establish at 3 yrs of age
B. Abducting the flexed hip can cause click[orlanis sign]
C. Abducting the flexed hip is not limited
D. Apparent lengthening of the thigh with the hips & knee flexed may be seen
E. Initial treatment is by open reduction
Q-23 – In portal hypertension, the associated hepato-cellular damage is least if the cause is Iron over load?
A. Schistosoma mansoni
B. Post necrotic scarring
C. Alcoholic liver disease
D. Cirrhosis following chronic active hepatitis
E. -
Q-24 – The group A beta hemolytic streptococcus may trigger the attach of acute Rheumatic Fever, when it ?
A. Spread via blood
B. Causes an upper respiratory tract infection
C. Lodge in the myocardium
D. Invade the joints
E. Enter through a skin infection.
Q-25 – 6 years old girl, low grade fever, arthralgia 5 days, difficulty in swallowing associated with fever 3wks prior to presentation, OE, heart rates 150/min, pan systolic murmur at apex, no gallop, liver 1 cm below the costal margin, the most likely diagnosis is?
A. Bacterial Endocarditis
B. Viral myocarditis
C. Acute Rheumatic fever
D. Peri carditis
E. CCF
Q-26 – 24 years old man, car accident, fracture pelvis, bleeding urethra, you should?
A. Put Foley's catheter to drain any blood in the UB.
B. Stabilized the pelvis & suprapubic catheter
C. Stabilized the pelvis & Foley's catheter
D. Do IVP if normal put FC
E. Put FC & suprapubic catheter
Q-27 – 35 years old female H/O PPH at age of 22yr, C/O amenorrhea, loss of axillaries hair & pelvic hair, atrophy of external genitalia, all of the following is true, Except?
A. X-ray skull showing ballooning of the sella
B. Hyponatremia
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Low serum T4
E. Low radio active iodine uptake
Q-28 – Peripheral neuritis can be caused by the following except?
A. DM
B. Lead poisoning
C. Gentamycin
D. Uremia
E. -
Q-29 – 35 years old female H/O bright red blood discharge from nipple, O/E, cystic swelling felt beneath the areola, the diagnosis is?
A. Breast abscess
B. Fibro adenoma.
C. Duct papilloma
D. Duct ectasia
E. Fat necrosis of the breast

Q-30 – The child who is poisoned, the most effective treatment to remove gastric contant Is by use of?
A. Saline lavage with wide bore nasogastric tube
B. Tartar emetic
C. Syrup of ipeca cuanah
D. Manual induction of vomiting
E. Citrate of magnesia
Q-31 – 30 years old male with long H/O Cronh’s disease, surgery is indicated if he has?
A. Internal fistula
B. External fistula
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Abdominal mass
E. Stagnant bowel syndrome
Q-32 – All of the following are S/S of normal pregnancy except?
A. Hyper emesis
B. Amenorrhea
C. Hagar's sign
D. Chadwick sign
E. Quickening
Q-33 – 32 years old pt H/O low back pain & morning stiffness, O/E tenderness over sacroiliac Joint, loss of lumber lordosis, x-ray shows sclerosis of sacro-iliac joint, all of them are true About disease, except?
A. The disease is more common in male than female [9:1]
B. Arthritis is more common complication
C. RA factor is negative
D. Subcutaneous nodules are frequent
E. Phenylbutazone + indomethacin are effective therapy
Q-34 – 50 years old man came with rectal bleeding, O/E external hemorrhoid, you will do?
A. Advised excision of hemorrhoid
B. Do barium enema or colonoscopy
C. Give iron tab
D. Do rigid sigmoidoscopy & if normal excise hemorrhoid
E. Do nothing & ask pt to come after 6 months
Q-35 – Primary amenorrhea may be due to?
A. Failure canalization of the mullerian duct
B. Congenital adrenal virilism
C. Kallman’s syndrome
D. All of the above
E. Non of the above
Q-36 – The anatomical site of the neck of femoral hernia is?
A. Transverse fascia
B. Ileopectineal ligament
C. Femoral ring
D. Cribriform facia
E. Obturator foramen
Q-37 – 40 years old man, H/O gall stone, CO sever abdominal pain, O/E ecchymotic discloration of the flanks, the most likely diagnosis is?
A. Acute colitis
B. Acute cholecystitis
C. Acute appendicitis
D. Acute pancriatitis
E. Perforated duodenal ulcer
Q-38 – All of the following about moving eyelocelle are true, except?
A. Usually associated with hydrocephalus
B. Its fatal if not treated in 24 hrs
C. It may be diagnosed in utero with ultrasound.
D. It may cause urological problem.
E. It's require orthopedic management.
Q-39 – The best predictive sign of severity of an asthmatic attack is?
A. Intercostals & supra clavicular retraction
B. Paradoxical pulse of 20 mmHg
C. Arterial PO2 of 50 mmHg
D. Arterial PO2 of 60 mmHg & PCO2 of 44 mmHg
E. Visible exhaustion

Q-40 – All of the following statement concerning lactation are true, except?
A. Prolactin is essential for lactation
B. Sucking trigger a rise in Prolactin
C. Sucking stimulate the release of Oxytocin
D. Expression of milk is due to contraction of myo-epithelial cells
E. Milk let down may be inhibited by over hydration.

SAUDI COUNCIL FOR HEALTH SPECIALIST EXAM
Sample-1
Q-1 – In abdominal trauma, all true except?
a- spleen is the common damage organ
b- badly injured spleen needs spleenectomy
c- Abdominal lavage often excludes abdominal hemorrhage.
d- Abdominal often accurate to localize the site of trauma.
e-
Q-2 – Ano-rectal abscess, all true except?
a- First line of treatment ABC
b- Physical signs can be hidden if it is in supra-levator space
c- Usually originates from intra-sphinctric space.
d- Usually originated from anal gland infection.
e-
Q-3 – Intestinal obstruction, all true except?
a- Increased temperature & pulse with localized rigidity & tenderness indicate strangulation.
b- Serum amylase could be elevated..
c- Always require surgery..
d- If high obstruction the distension will be absent,
e-
Q-4 – Acute appendicitis in children?
a- Leucocytosis is diagnosis.
b- Rarely perforated if untreated well
c- Can cause intestinal obstruction.
d- Need ABC before surgery for every child
e-
Q-5 – In breast Carcinoma all of the following are true, except?
a- 2 cm mass with free axilla in stage-1.
b- Chemotherapy is must for pre-menopausal with positive axilla
c- Radical mastectomy is the choice of surgery.
d- Mammography per year for contra lateral breast.
e-
Q-6 – Inhalation injury in burned, all of the following are true, except?
a- CO is the major cause of death in early stage.
b- Patient should be admitted to ICU for observation even without skin burn
c- Signed vibrissae is respiratory sign
d- Bronchioles & alveoli could burn from hot smoke.
e-
Q-7-Ischemic leg?
A. Golden period 4-16 hours
B. nerves first to be damage.
C. angiogram done in all Pt.
D. Parasthesia pt more critical than those with pain
E. -
Q-8-Acute cholangitis, all of the following are true ECEPT?
A. coli most common.
B. septicemic shock most likely complication
C. Jaundice uncommon.
D. ERCP & papillotomy is best treatment
E. -
Q-9-Right colon Ca, all of the following are true ECEPT?
a- Profound anemia.
b- Occult blood
c- Dyspepsic symptoms
d- Melena,
e-

Q-10-Recent hemothorax
a-thoraccotomy & decortication
b- Aspiration
c- Insertion of chest tube
d- Volume replacement only.
e-
Q-11- Thyroid Ca associated with?
a- hyperthyroidism
b- hypothyroidism
c- euthyroid
d- only metastatic tissue produce hormones
e- toxic nodules.
Q-12- Fractured humorous associated with most common?
a- radial nerve injury
b- ulner nerve injury
c- medial nerve injury.
d- axillary nerve injury
e- musclocutaneous nerve injury
Q-13- Fractured pelvis most commonly associated with?
a- bladder injury.
b- penile urethra injury.
c- bulbomembranous urethra injury
d- ureter injury
e-
Q-14- Best treatment for tension pneumothorax “patient in distress”?
a- I.V. Fluid.
b- Oxygen
c- respiratory sti,ulator.
d- Aspiration of ait by needle.
e- Intubation.
15- Ranulla is?
a- forked uvula.
b- Thyroglossal cyst
c- Swelling at the floor of the mouth.
d-
e-
Q-16-Critical count of platelets which leads to spontaneous bleeding is?
a- 1000
b- 50,000
c- 75,000
d- 100,000
e- 200,000
Q-17- which one will give bilateral breast Ca?
a- lobular breast Ca.
b- Intraductal Breast Ca
c- mucinous breast Ca
d- Medullary breast Ca.
e- Tubular breast Ca.
Q-18- The best method for temporary control of bleeding id?
a- Arterial tourniquet.
b- Venous torniquet.
c- Direct venous pressure.
d- Adrenaline
e-
Q-19- Anorexia nervosa, all of the following are true ECEPT?
a- Lethargy.
b- Lanugo hair
c- Amenorrhea
d- Young female
e-
Q-20- Hypochondriasis, all of the following are true ECEPT?
a- More common in medical student.
b- less commoc in male than females
c- more common in lower social class.
d- defined as morbid pre-occupation of one’s body or health.
e-
Q-21- All are speech disorder, Except?
a- Stuttering.
b- Mumbing
c- Cluttering
d- Paliala.
e-
Q-22- Family behavior towards schizophrenic pt affect prognosis adversly?
a- Double binding
b- Over emotion behavior
c- Schizomatic parents
d- Projective identification
e-
Q-23- Pre-ejaculation, all of the following are true EXCEPT?
a- Most common sexual disorder in males.
b- Uncommon in young men.
c- Its treatment benefit from other partner.
d- it benefit anxiety treatment.
e-
Q-24- The most prominent symptom of acute otitis media is?
a- Pain.
b- Hearing loss.
c- discharge..
d- Tinitis
e- Non of the above.
Q-25- Lenth of the trachea in adult is?
a-11-12 cm.
b- 24 cm
c- 20 cm.
d- 4 cm
e- non of the above
Q-26- Identification for trachestomy, all of the following are true EXCEPT?
a- Foreign body in larynx.
b- left recurrent nerve cut
c- Ca larynx
d- In some procedure exposed to radiation
e- non of the above
Q-27- Fetal unilateral discharge is feature of?
a- adenoid
b- choanal atresia.
c- Foreign body..
d- right atrophy..
e- non of the above.
Q-28- Best first aid to control epistaxis is?
a- Adrenaline
b- Cold application on forehead
c- Good pinching or compression lower end of nose for 5-8 minutes.
d- non of the above
e-
Q-29- Known risk factor of suicide include all of the following are true EXCEPT?
a- Depression
b- Previous self attempt
c- Females less than males.
d- Drugs & alcohol dependence,
e- If doctor ask the pt any suicidal attempt..
Q-30- Gastric lavage?
a- Inffective after 12 hrs paracetamol intake..
b- indicated with paraffin oil.
c- used more in semiconcious pt than induced vomitting
d- pt sfould be on right side.
e-
Q-31- A 50 years old man presented with central abdominal pain radiated to the back, X-ray abdomen normal, X-ray back normal, diagnosis is?
a- Cholecystitis…
b- Appendicitis.
c- Pancreatitis.
d- Diverticulitis.
e-
Q-32- Acute glomerulonephritis, which is not correct investigation?
a- Complement.
b- Urinanalysis.
c- ANA
d- Blood culture.
e- Cystoscopy.
Q-33- all of the following precipitate seizure EXCEPT?
a- Hypourecemia.
b- Hypokalemia.
c- Hypophosphatemia..
d- Hypocalcemia.
e-
Q-34- A 25 yrs pt presented with headache, avoidance of light & resist flexion of neck, next step is?
a- ECG
b- X-ray cervical spine..
c- Phenytoin
d- non of the above.
e-
Q-35- A 20 yrs old female present with fever, loin pain & dysuria, management all of the following EXCEPT?
a- Urinalysis & culture.
b- Blood Culture.
c- IVP
d- Cotrimexazol.
e- non of the above.
Q-36- The most effective monitor in pt with acute bleeding?
a- Hb.
b- HCV
c- vital sign
d- Amount of blood loss..
e-
Q-37- the most common cause of epistaxis in children is?
a- Polyps.
b- trauma.
c- Dry air.
d- Thrombocytopenia
e-
Q-38- The amount of Na, in ORS in WHO is?
a- 150 meq
b- 120 meq
c- 90 meq
d- 60 meq
e- 30 meq
39- Child with epiglotitis with present with all of the following EXCEPT?
a- Fever
b- Dysphagia
c- like to lie in supine Position
d- Stridor
Q-40- The Likelihood Of a daughter For Father having severe hemophilia B is:
a- 0%
b- 25 %
c- 50 %
d- 75 %
e- 100 %
Q-41- All Of the following are true about pyloric Stenosis, EXCEPT:
a- Incidence male more than female.
b- Onset is generallt late in the first month of life.
c- Vomitus is bile stained.
d- Appetite is good.
e- Jaundice occur in association.
Q-42- Risk factor of sudden death syndrom include all of the following, Except?
a- Cigratte smoking during pregnancy.
b- Old primigravida.
c- Crowded living room.
d- Prematurity.
e- small gestational age.
Q-43- A 2 yr boy has rectal pain, bleeding with perianal itching & constipation for 3 days, physical examination revealed a perianal erythematous rash which extend 2 cm around the anal ring, most likely diagnosis is?
a- Anal fissure.
b- Rectal polyp.
c- Ulcerative colitis.
d- Streptococcal infection.
e- Malakoplakia.
Q-44- In brucellosis, all of the following are true EXCEPT?
a- Brucella. A cause more sever form than B.M in children..
b- Human to human rarely documented.
c- Human can infected through inhalation.
d- Brucella species are small. Non-motile gm -ive coccobacilli.
e- pt with higher titer can show false -ive..
Q-45- Children are expected to walk without support at age of?
a- 6 m
b- 9 m
c- 15 m
d- 18 m
e- 20 m
Q-46- Which of the following vaccines not given to a household contact with immunodeficient child?
a- Hepatitis.
b- DPT
c- Oral polio
d- BCG
e-
Q-47- Sympotm of cystic fibrosis in neonates?
a- Meconium ileus..
b- Pneumothorax
c- Steatorrhea.
d- Rectal prolapse.
e-
Q-48- DKA in children, all of the following are true EXCEPT?
a- Don’t give K till lab result come.
b- ECG monitering essential..
c- If pH < 7..0 than give HCO3.
d- NGT for semiconscious pt.
e- Furosemide for pt with oliguria..
Q-49- Common sypmtom of Hodgkin lymphoma not seen in Non Hodgkin L?
a- Night sweat
b- Superior vena cava syndrome
c- CNS involvement.
d- Intussusception
e- Bone pain.
Q-50- To prevent tetanus in neonates
a- Give antitetanus serum in neonates.
b- Give immunoglobinto mother..
c- Give tetanus toxoid to mother
d- Give antibiotic to mother
e- give penecillin to child to kill tetanus bacilli.
Q-51- MMR given at age of
a- 3m
b- 8 m
c- 12 m
d- 24m
e- 30m
Q-52- Hypothyroid in young baby usually due to?
a- Endocrine irresponse.
b- enzyme deffiency.
c- Drug use by mother..
d- Agenesis
e-
Q-53- Blood pressure, all of the following are true EXCEPT?
a- If 2/3 of cuff à false increased BP.
b- internal cuff must cover 80% of arm
c- following circadian vary à increased late night BP.
d- Increased BP à 3 standrad deviation away from normal.
e- You have to have more than one reading to diagnosis inreased BP.
Q-54- All of the following drugs advised NOT to be given to elderly patien except?
a- Cimitidine.
b- Thyroxin
c- Digoxin
d- Chloropromide
e-
Q-55- Percentage of reinfection for pt undergoing non-cardiac surgery
a- 5% in 3 months.
b- 15% in 3 months
c- 35% in 3 months
d-5% in 6 months
e- 35%IN 6 MONTHS
Q-56- Fruosemide increased excretion of?
a- Na
b- K
c- Phosphorus
d- Non of the above
e-
Q-57- Heparin action depend on?
a- Potetiation of antithrombin III
b- Change plasmin to plasmogen
c- Affect prothrombin
d- affect ionized Ca
e-
Q-58- Digoxin toxicity?
a- Tinitis
b- Pleural effusion
c- nausea
d- All of the above
e- non of the above
Q-59- Communicable disease controlled by?
a- Control of the sorce of infection
b- Block the causal of transmission
c- Protect the susceptible pt
d- All of the above
e- non of the above.
Q-60- Anti-D Ig not given to a pregnant if?
a- 25-28 wks
b- Anti-D antibody ratio 1:8
c- after amniocentesis
d- after anti partum hemorrhage
e- after chrionic villi biopsy
Q-61- blood pH?
a- Incread after diarrhea
b- decreased after vomitting
c- more in right atrium than left atrium
d- lower in right atrium than left atrium
e- lower in renal vein than renal artery

Q-62- Premenstrual tension
a- more in first half of menses
b- 60% associated with edema
c- associated with increased eating salty food
d- menorragia
e-
Q-63- blockage of first stage labor pain by?
a- Block of lumbosacral plexus afferent?
b- Block of lumbosacral plexus efferent
c- Block of pudendal nerve.
d- Block of sacral plexus.
e-
Q-64- If a pregnant women eating well balanced diet, one of the following should be supplied?
a- Ca.
b- Phosphorus.
c- Vit-C
d- Non of the above
e-
Q-65- Most important cause of immediate post partum hemorrahage?
a- Laceration of cervix.
b- Laceration of vagina
c- Uterine atony.
d- Placental fragment retension
e-
Q-66- Dysparunea caused by all of the following Except?
a- Cervicitis.
b- Endometritis
c- Lack of lubricant
d- Vaginitis
e- Uterine prolapse
Q-67- all of the following are normal flora & should not treated Excpet?
a- Trichomonas.
b- Candida
c- E coli
d- Fragmented bacteria
e-
Q-68- Treatment of bacterial vaginitis?
a- Ampicillin.
b- Tetracyline
c- Metronidazole.
d- erythromycin
e-
Q-69- Management of anaphylactic shock, all of the following Except?
a- I.V.F
b- 100% oxygen
c- corticosteroid
d-
e-
Q-70- all of the following are sign of allergy to local anesthesia, Except?
a- Laryngeal spasm
b- urticareia.
c- decreased B.P
d- Bronchospasm
e-
Q-71- Gastric aspiration?
a- Cuffed NGT may prevent aspiration.
b-
c-
d-
e-

Q-72- Below the inguinal ligament, where is the femoral artery?
a- Medial
b- Lateral
c- Anterior
d- Posterior
e-
Q-73- Hepatitis most commonly transferred by blood?
a- HBV
b- HAV
c- Non-A, Non-B
d- Non of the above.
e-
Q-74- Primary Tb?
a- Upper part of lung..
b- Normal X-ray
c-Positive PPD
d-
e-
Q-75- Increased bleeding time, all of the following Except?
a- hemophilia
b- scurvy
c-
d-
e-
Q-76-Serum ferritin reflect?
a- total iron store
b- Serum iron
c- Bone morrow iron.
d- Non of the above.
e-
Q-77- which one shift oxygen dissociation curve to the left?
a- Hypoxia.
b- Acidosis
c- High attitude
d-
e-
Q-78- Treatment contact, all of the following Except?
a- Belariasis
b- Malaria
c- Hook worm
d-
e-
Q-79-The best way of health education?
a- Mass media.
b- interview
c-
d-
e-
Q-80- Which one cab ne taken orally?
a- Amikacin.
b- Neomycin.
c- gentamycin.
d-
e-
Q-81- Chronic use of steroid will give?
a- Osteomalcia
b- Myopathies of pelvic girdle muscles.
c- Increased risk of breast Ca..
d-
e-

Q-82-Swallowed foreign body will be found in, all of the following Except?
a- Stomach
b- Tonsil
c- Pharyngeal pouch.
d-
e-
Q-83- all of the following are true about pulmonary embolism, Except?
a- Normal ABG
b-
c-
d-
e-
Q-84- all of the following cause gastric irritaion, Except?
a- Erythromycin
b- NSAID
c- Sucralfate
d- declovenac
e-
Q-85- all of the following are anti-arrhythmic drugs, Except?
a- Xylocane
b- Digoxin
c-
d-
e-
Q-86- APGAR score?
a- Heart rate important.
b- of 12 point.
c-
d-
e-

Q-87- Old male pt came with urine retention, dilated ureter & hydronephrosis, dignosis is?
a- Benign prostate hypertrophy.
b-
c-
d-
e-
Q-88-in DKA use?
a- Short & intermediate insulin..
b-
c-
d-
e-
Q-89- Torsion, all of the following are true, Except?
a- Very tender & progressive swelling.
b- More common in young males
c- hematuria
d- treatment is surgical
e-
Q-90- Congenital squint ?
a-
b-
c-
d-
e-
Q-91- all of the following cause secondary HTN, Except?
a- Pheochromocytoma.
b- Addisons disease.
c- Hyperaldosterone.
d- Renal disease.
e-
Q-92- all of the following are true about paracetamol poisoning, Except?
A. Metaboilc acidosis.
B. Hypoglycemia.
C. Brochospam
D. Liver failure
Q-93- Adenoid
A. Can be chronic source of infection.
B. Cause snoring by movement
C. Attached to roof of nose
D. Involved in immune system reaction
Q-94- Cellulitis in children [6-24 m] mostly cause by?
A. H. Influenza..
B. Streptococcus group-A
C. Staphlococcus.
D. Psuedomonas
E. e. coli
Sample-2
Q-95- all of the following drugs should ve avoided during pregnancy Except?
A. Na Valporate
B. Glibinclamide
C. Ceflex
D. Septran
E. Warfarin
Q-96- Secondary prevention is best effective in?
A. DM
B. Leukemia
C. Pre-eclemsia
D. Malabsorption
E. -
Q-97-Complication of colostomy, all of the following Except?
A. Malabsorption of water
B. Prolapse
C. Retraction
D. Obstruction
E. Excoriation of skin
Q-98- Rubella infection ,one is TRUE:
a- Incubation period is 3-5 days
b- Oral ulcer
c- Arthritis
d- Not cause heart compliction to the fetus
e-
Q-99- Avascular necrosis of head of femur usually detected clinically by
a-3 months
b- 6 months
c- 11 months
d- 15 months
e-
Q-100- All of the following may cause sudden unilateral blindness, EXCEPT:
a- Retinitis pigmentosa
b- Retrobulbar neuritis
c- Retinal detachment
d- Veterus hemorrhage
e- Central retinal artery embolism
Q-101- Glue ear, one is TRUE
a- can be treated by Grumett tubr insertion
b-
c-
d-
e-
Q-102- the First symptom of left heart failure is
a- Orthopnea
b- Edema
c- Dyspnea on exertion
d-
e-

Q-103- Tinnitis one is TRUE
a- Not expert by children
b- iii
c- iii
Q-104- Treatment of tetralogy of fallot, all of the following true Except?
A. Thoracotomy
B. Use of systemic antibiotics
C. Chest tube insertion
Q-105- the following are the risk factor of perpural infection, Except?
A. Endometriosis
B. Cervical leceration
C. Hemorrhage
D. Anemia
E. Retained placenta
Q-106- epdidymitis,one is true.?
A. The peak age b/w 12-18 yrs.
B. U/S is diagnostic
C. Scrotal content within normal size
D. Typical iliac fossa pain.
E. Non of the above
Q-107-All are the complication of laproscopic cholecystectomy, except?
A. Incisional hernia
B. Persistent pneumo-peritonitis
C. Bile leakage
D. Ascietis
Q-108- Post laproscopic cholecystectomy pt present with progressive jaundice, the most appropriate investugation is?
A. ERCP
B. IV cholengiography
Q-109- All of the following organism cause diarrhea with invasion, Except?
A. Shigilla
B. Yersinia
C. Salmonella
D. Cholera
E. Campylobacter
Q-110- All are true about congenital squint, Except?
A. -There is no difference of the angle of deviation of squint eye b/w far & near sightness
B.
C. -
D. -
Q-111- good prognostic factor for pt with schizophrenic is?
A. +ive family history..
B. no previous cause
C. gradual onset
D. prominent affective symptom
E. flat mood
Q-112- A child attend the clinic 3 time with H/O cough for 5 days, not respond to symptomatic treatment, one is true in management?
A. CXR is mandatory
B. Trial of bronchodilater
C. Trial of antibiotics
D. -
E. -
Q-113- BPH, all are true, Except
A. prostitis
B. nocturia
C. diminished size & strength of stream
D. hematuria
E. urine retension.
Q-114- Which of the following is not true regarding osteomylitis?
A. Pneumocystitis
B. Epphyseal plate distruction
C. Septic arthritis
D. Septicemia
E. Further bone growth
Q-115-varicose vein will affect all of the following Except?
A. Short sephanous vein
B. Long sephanous vein
C. Popliteal veinperforators
D. -
Q-116- Retinal detachment, all of the following are true, Except?
More common in hyper-metropic pt than myopic
A. -
B. -
C. -
Q-117- all of the following muscles are rotator cuff, Except?
A. Supra-spanatus
B. Teris-minor
C. Infra-spinatous
D. Deltoid
E. -
Sample-3
Q-1- Complication of systemic hypertension, except?
A. -intra-cerebral H/gs
B. -renal artery stenosis
C. -
D. -
E. -
Q-2- S3 occur in all of the following Except?
A. -tricuspid regurgitation
B. -young athlete
C. LV failure
D. Mitral stenosis
E. -
Q-3- Treatment of chronic atrial fibrillation all except?
A. Cardioversion.
B. Digoxin
C. -Warfarin
D. -
E. -
Q-4- Treatment of unstable angina all except?
A. Heparin
B. IV nitroglycerin
C. -beta-blocker
D. -asprin
E. -
Q-5- Pt with right femur fracture developed chest pain, hemoptysis, ABG PO2 increased, first line of management
a- Hebarin
b- Aminophyllin
c- ii
d- ii
Q-6- Pt with pain in sacroiliac joint, with morning stiffness x-ray of sacroiliac joint …. All will be found EXCEPT:
a- RF-ve
b- Subcutaneous nodule
c- Male .> female
d- ii
Q-7- Fecal leuckocyte in all, EXCEPT:
a- Shigellosis
b- clindamycin induce colitis
c- Idiopathic ulcerative cloilitis
d-
Q-8- Child with TB all found Except?
A. H/O exposure to Tb Pt
B. Chest x-ray finding
C. Splenomagaly
D. AFB ingastric levage
E. -


Q-9- In brucellosis all of the following true, Except?
A. Back pain
B. Hepatomegaly
C. Splenomegaly
D. Lymphadenopathy
E. Gastroenteritis
Q-10- All can be used for treatment of acute gout, Except
A. Allopurinol
B. Penicillamine
C. Gold salt
D. Paracetamol
E. Indomethacin
Q-11- In 6 months old pt with sepsis, most likely organism in infant?
A. Listeria
B. B-hemolytic streptococci
C. H Influenzae type-B
D. Staphlococcus epidermidis
E. -
Q-12- Mycoplasma pneumoniae??
A. Co-agulase +ive
B. Lobar consolidation
C. -
D. -
E. -
Q-13- Community acquired pneumonia treatment is?
A. First generation cephalosporin
B. Penicillin-G + second generation cephalosporin
C. Erythromycin
D. -
Q-14- All vaccines given in KSA for normal child, except?
A. TB
B. Pertusis
C. H Influenza type-B
D. Mumps
E. Diptheria
Q-15- UTI in children
A. Diagnosed by isolation of organism > 100,000 colony count-
B. -
C. -
D. -
E. -
Q-16-Hypokalemia occur in all except?
A. Metabolic alkalosis
B. Acute tubular acidosis
C. Chronic diarrhea
D. Hyper aldosterone
E. Frusamide treatment
Q-17- Urine analysis shows all, except?
A. Phosphate
B. Specific gravity
C. Concentrating capacity
D. Protien
E. Sugar
Q-18- ARF all of the following true Except?
A. Phosphatemia
B. Uremia
C. Increased acid phosphatase
D. Increased K
E. Decreased Na
Q-19- Pt with analytic shock, all of the following are true in treatment Except?
A. Epinephrine
B. Hydralazin
C. Adrenaline
D. Aminophylin
E. Oxygen

Q-20- Patien with partial thicknes burn?
A. Its sensitive
B. Its insensitive
C. It will change to slough within 2-3 wks
D. Need split graft
E. Need free flap
Q-21- 82 yrs old pt with acute urinary retension,management?
A. Empty UB with foleys catheter & followup inlcinic.
B. Insert F.C then send home to come back in clinic
C. Admission & investigation, TURP
D. Immediate prostatectomy.
E. -
Q-22- A 6 yrs old female from Jezan with hematuria, all investigation needed Except?
A. Hb-S
B. Cystoscopy
C. Hb-Electrophoresis
D. Urine analysis
E. U/S abdomen to see changes in Glomerulus
Q-23- Pt with Hb-8, MCV-82, Retic- 10%, needed all, Except?
A. Hb-Electrophoresis
B. Coombs test
C. Serum iron
D. Serumbilirubin
E. -
Q-24- A boy with coca cola color urine, 3 wks back a throat swab showed group-A B-hemolytic streptococci, in favour of diagnosis of post strep GN?
A. RBC cast in urine analysis
B. Increased creatinine
C. Streptozyme test
D. Decreased complement
E. Shrunken kidney by U/S
Q-25- Pt with wt loss all true except?
A. thyrotoxicosis
B. Nephrotic synd
C. TB
D. Aids
E. Carcinoma
Q-26- A 36 yrs old female with FBS-14 mmol & glycosuria, without ketoneuria, treatment is?
A. Intermittent I/M insulin NPH
B. Sulphonylurea + diabetic diet
C. Diabetic diet only
D. Metformin
E. -
Q-27- A 50 yrs old female with rectal bleeding, on examination external hemorrhoid, traetment?
A. Advised excision of hemorrhoid
B. Do nothing & followup in 6 months
C. Sent home on iron tabbowel
D. enema + colonoscopy
E. Rigid sigmoidoscopy
Q-28- Peritonitis
A. pt roll over with agony[pain]
B. pt lies still
C. decreased pulse arte
D. -
E. -
Q-29- Cord propla[se occur in all, except?
A. Premature rupture of membranes
B. Preterm delivery with rupture of membrane
C. Oligohydromnious
D. Head high in pelvis
E. -
Q-30- Diabetes in pregnancy?
A. Oligohydromnious
B. Hypoglycemia ccur in baby after delivery
C. Hyper-calcemia in the baby
D. -
E. -
Q-31- Stress ulcer can be found in all, except?
A. Burn
B. Asprin
C. CNS lesion
D. Penecillin
E. -
Q-32- Peripheral neuropathy can occur in all, except?
A. Lead poisoning
B. DM
C. Gentamycin
D. INH [Anti-TB]
E. -
Q-33- Pt with upper abdominal pain, all in favour of peptic ulcer, Except?
A. Hunger pain
B. Heart burn
C. Epigastric mass
D. epigastric tenderness
E. hematemesis
Q-34- premalignant lesion?
A. Pedunculated polyp
B. Villous papilloma
C. Polypoid polyp
D. Juvenile polyp
E. -
Q-35- Multiple ulcer of medial aspect of the leg with redness & tenderness around it, most likely?
A. Venous ulcer
B. Ischemic ulcer
C. Carcinoma
D. -
E. -
Q-36- 35 yrs female with bloody discharge from nipple, on examination cystic swelling near areols?
A. Duct ectasia
B. Intra ductal papilloma
C. Fibro-adenoa
D. -
E. -
Q-37- Appendicitis most diagnostic?
A. Fever
B. Diarrhea
C. Urinary symptom
D. Leukocytosis
E. Tender right lower quadrant with rebound
Q-38- Pt known to have gall stones presented with central abd pain & bruisng in the flank, diagnosis?
A. Acute cholecystitis
B. Acute pancreatitis
C. Acute appendicitis
D. Acute peritonitis
E. -
Q-39- Congenital hip dislocation?
A. Diagnosed after 3 yrs
B. Abduction + flexion [ortolani test] produce click
C. Abduction not limited
D. Lenghtening of the leg
E. Treatment by open reduction

Q-40- supracondylar fracture pt presented with swelling & cynosis of finger after plaster, management
A. removal of plint near finger.
B. Entire removal of all splint.
C. -
D. -
E. -
Q-41- adduction hip & Internal rotation in fixed position will be?
A. Anterior dislocation of hip
B. Posterior dislocation of hip
C. -
D. -
E. -
Q-42- Neonate just dilivered, term pregnancy, developed respiratory distress CXR multiple lesion in left side shifted mediastinum to the right, decreased bilateral breath sound & flat abdomen?
A. Diaphragmatic hernia
B. RDS
C. Emphysema
D. -
E. -
Q-43- A 2 months boy with projectile vomitting, on examination olive mass in right upper quadrant of abdomen first step of investigation?
A. X-ray abdomen
B. Urea & electrolyte
C. Barium studies
D. -
Q-44- 2 days old neonate presented with peri rectal bleeding, diagnosis?
A. Mickles diverticulum
B. Intussception
C. Fissure-in -ano
D. -
E. -
Q-45- Child with imperforated anus the most useful diagnostic procedure?
A. Plane X-ray abdomen with child inverted position
B. Plane X-ray abdomen
C. -
D. -
E. -
Q-46- 18 months old pt, the mother complain that pt is saying only mama & baba, no other word pt otherwise completely normal first step to evaluate?
A. Physical examination
B. Hearing test
C. Developmental test
D. Test speech
E. -
Q-47- Perinatal asphyxia could be caused by all, Except?
A. Abruptio placentae
B. Hyperemesis gravidarum
C. Pre-eclempsia
D. -
E. -
Q-48- S/S of normal pregnancy, Ecept?
A. Hyperemesis
B. Hega’s sign
C. Clawic sign
D. Amenorrhea
E. -
Q-49- In twin all ture, Except?
A. Dizygote more common than monozygote
B. In dizygote more twin-to-twin transfusion
C. Physical change double time than single form
D. U/S can show twins
E. -

Q-50- ectopic pregnancy, Except?
A. Occur ovarian in 20%
B. Empty uterus by U/S with high beta HCG before 12 wks
C. Beta-HCG double of normal
D. -
E. -
Q-51- Breech presentation all true, Except?
A. Breech after 36 wks about 22%
B. Known to cause intra cranial hemorrhage
C. Known with prematurity
D. -
E. -
Q-52-In lactation all true, Except?
A. Sucking stimulate prolactin
B. Sucking cause release of oxytocin
C. Milk releasedecreasedby over hydration
D. -
E. -
Q-53- Secondary amenorrhea?
A. Always pathological
B. Is a part of sheehan syndrome
C. turner syndrome
D. -
E. -
Q-54- Pt with PPH & infertility, all can be found Except?
A. Balloning of sella turcica
B. Decreased Na
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Decreased T4
E. Decreased iodine uptake
Q-55- Placenta previa, all are true Except? Shock out proportion of bleeding
A. Malpresentation
B. Head not engaged
C. Ppainless bleeding
D. -
Q-56- PID pelvic inflamatory disease, all are true, Except?
A. Infertility
B. Endometriosis
C. Dysparunia
D. Can be traeted surgically
E. -
Q-57- Laproscopy could be used in all, Except?
A. Infertility
B. Intestinal obstruction
C. Primary amenorrhea
D. -
E. -
Q-58-Recurrent abortion, except?
A. Genetic abnormality
B. Uterine abnormality
C. Thyroid dysfunction
D. Dmincreased prolactin
Q-59- DIC occur in all,Except?
A. Abruptio placenta
B. Fetal death
C. DM
D. Pre-eclampsia
E. -
Q-60- PIH, all are true, Except?
A. Ankle edema
B. Polyuria
C. Exaggerated reflex
D. Right upper quadrant
E. -

Q-61-pyelonephritis in pregnancy all are true, Except?
A. Gentamycin is a drug of choice
B. Abruptio placenta should be ruled out
F. coli is a commoc organism
C. Should be traeted even for asymptomatic
D. -
Q-62- All indicat severity os bronchial asthama, Except? Intercostal & supraclavicular retraction
A. Exhaustion
B. PO2 60 mmHg
C. PO2 60 mmHg +PCO2 45 mmHg
D. Pulsus paradoxis > 20 mmHg
Q-63- All are normal in association with teething Except?
A. Rinorrhea
B. Diarrhea
C. Fever > 39 C
D. Irritability
E. -
Q-64- Pt come within 3 hrs with H/O lf side weakness, on examination revealed lf side hemiparesis, pulse 120 min, irregular with diastolic murmur at mitral area first step of management?
A. Heparin
B. Digoxin
C. EEG
D. Cardioangiography
E. ECG
Q-65- Pt with fever, pallor petechei, CBC as WBC-2,800/cmm2, Hb-6 gm%, plt- 29,000,
next step of investigation?
A. B/M aspiration
B. -
C. -
D. -
Q-66- Pt on chemotherapy presented with fever, all should be done, Except?
A. Blood C/S
B. Urine C/S
C. Asprin is effective
D. Broad spectrumantibiotic
E. -
Q-67- Chrons disease indicationofsurgery is?
A. Intestinal fistula
B. External fistula
C. Intestinal obstruction
D. Abd mass
E. -
Q-68- In infected index finger,all can be use, except?
A. Rubber tourniquet
B. Xylocaneadrenalin
C. Ring block
D. -
E. -
Q-69- Pt with low grade fever & arthralgia for 5 days, presented with pansystolic murmur at apex, H/O difficulty in swallowing with fever 3 wks back, most likely diagnosis is?
A. Bacterial endocarditis
B. Viral myocarditis
C. Acute rheumatic fever
D. Pericarditis
E. -
Q-70- Signs of CCF in children all, except?
A. Gallop rhythm
B. Periorbital edema
C. Basal crept
D. Hepatomegaly
E. Bounding pulse
Q-71- 7 months old infant with 4 m H/O interruption of feeding, normal S1 loud S2 pansystolic murmur grade III / IV at 3rd lf intercostal space parasternally, with hyperactive pericardium, diagnosis?
A. Large VSD
B. Large ASD
C. PDA
D. Aortic regurgitation
E. Mitral regargitation
Q-72- Pt present with fever swelling is felt,anterior LN, swelling warm, tender & fluctant, diagnosis?
A. Viral infection
B. Bacterial lymphadenitis
C. Hodgkin lymphoma
D. ALL
E. -
Q-73- A 50 yrs old female pt with H/O wt loss, preference of cold weather, palpitation, there is
H/O firm swelling in the anterior neck for 5 yrs, diagnosis is?
A. Simple goiter
B. Diffuse toxic goiter[grave disease]
C. Carotid body tumor
D. Parathyroidedema
Q-74- Pt presented with fluctuant redness of finger bulb, traetment?
A. Incision
B. Penicillin
C. -
D. -
E. -
Q-75- Infertility, all true, except?
A. Male factor present 24%
B. Normal semen analysis is > 20%
C. Idiopathic infertility is 27%
D. High prolactin could be a cause
E. -
Q-76- Pt with H/O fever, peripheral blood film +ive for malaria?
A. Banana shaped erythrocyte is seen in P.vivax
B. Mostly due to P Falciparum
C. Treated immediately with primaquine 10mg for 3 days
D. Response to treatment will take 72hrs to appear.-
E. -
Q-77- Primary amenorrhea due to?
A. Failure of canalization of mullarian duct
B. Kallman syndrome
C. Agenesis
D. All of the above
E. Non of the above
Q-78- Pt with oliguria, one contraindicated?
A. IV ringer lactate
B. IVP
C. -
D. -
E. -
79-Pt with multiple truma, conscious, treatment?
A. ABC
B. IVF
C. Cross match-
D. -
E. -
Q-80- Porat HTN the least cause hepatocellular damage?
A. Schistosomiasis
B. Alcohol cirrgosis
C. Post necrotic scaring
D. Cirrhosis due to chronic active hepatitis
E. -
Q-81- Obstructed labor?
A. Primigravida
B. Easy to diagnosed early before starting labor
C. -
D. -
E. -
Q-82- RTA with urethral bleeding, step of management?
A. Insert foleys catheter.
B. Stabilized the pelvis
C. Inser suprapubic catheter.
D. -
E. -
canada4all

Table 26-2. Causes of limp

Age Painful limp Painless limp

1-3 years Septic arthritis/osteomyelitis Developmental dysplasia of the hip

Transient synovitis Neuromuscular, e.g. cerebral palsy

Trauma - accidental/non-accidental Unequal leg length

Juvenile idiopathic arthritis

3-10 years Transient synovitis Perthes disease (chronic)

Septic arthritis/osteomyelitis Developmental dysplasia of the hip

Trauma Neuromuscular disorders, e.g. Duchenne's

Juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA) muscular dystrophy

Perthes disease (acute) Juvenile idiopathic arthritis

Malignant disease, e.g. leukaemia

11-16 years Slipped upper femoral epiphysis (acute) Slipped upper femoral epiphysis (chronic)

Avascular necrosis of the femoral head Juvenile idiopathic arthritis

Juvenile idiopathic arthritis Dysplastic hip

Trauma

Septic arthritis/osteomyelitis

Bone tumours
Posted by asghar at 11:59 AM 0 comments
Labels: DDH
Ataxia
Ataxia, from the Greek word for 'without order', describes incoordination of movement, speech and posture. This can be due to cerebellar or posterior sensory pathway problems. Cerebellar causes are more common in children. In cerebellar ataxia there is an unsteady wide-based gait, difficulty in performing repetitive and alternating movements (dysdiadochokinesis), overshooting of target-directed movement (dysmetria) and an intention tremor which becomes more pronounced when the child puts more effort into trying to hold a posture. The gait has a wide base to provide stability to compensate for the truncal ataxia. There may be associated wobble of the head, nystagmus and speech impairment with a scanning dysarthria. Cerebellar ataxia may be caused by various insults to the cerebellum:
• acute, from medication and drugs, including alcohol and solvent abuse
• post-viral, particularly after varicella infection
• posterior fossa lesions or tumours, e.g. medulloblastoma
• genetic and degenerative disorders, e.g. ataxic cerebral palsy, Friedreich's ataxia and ataxia-telangiectasia
Friedreich's ataxia
This is an autosomal recessive condition The gene mutation (Frataxin) is an example of a trinucleotide repeat disorder. It presents with worsening ataxia, distal wasting in the legs, absent lower limb reflexes but extensor plantar responses because of pyramidal involvement, pes cavus and dysarthria. This is similar to the hereditary motor sensory neuropathies, but in Friedreich's ataxia there is impairment of joint position and vibration sense, extensor plantars and there is often optic atrophy. The cerebellar component becomes more apparent with age. Evolving kyphoscoliosis and cardiomyo-pathy can cause cardiorespiratory compromise and death at 40-50 years
Ataxia telangiectasia
This disorder of DNA repair is an autosomal recessive condition. The gene (ATM) has been identified. There may be mild delay in motor development in infancy and oculomotor problems with incoordination and delay in ocular pursuit of objects (oculomotor dyspraxia), with difficulty with balance and coordination becoming evident at school age. There is subsequent deterioration, with a mixture of dystonia and cerebellar signs. Many children require a wheelchair for mobility in early adolescence. Telangiectasia develop in the conjunctiva , neck and shoulders from about 4 years of age. These children:
• have an increased susceptibility to infection, principally from an IgA surface antibody defect
• develop malignant disorders, principally acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (about 10%)
• have a raised serum alphafetoprotein
• have an increased white cell sensitivity to irradiation, which can be used diagnostically, but the ATM gene test is now mostly used.
Telangiectasia of the conjunctiva are present from about 4 years of age in ataxia telangiectasia.
Summary
• cerebellar is more common than posterior sensory pathway problems
• cerebellar causes - medication and drugs, varicella infection, posterior fossa lesions or tumours, genetic and degenerative disorders such as ataxic cerebral palsy, Friedreich's ataxia and ataxia-telangiectasia.
Posted by asghar at 11:50 AM 0 comments
Labels: Ataxia
questions and answers
Q.2. Obstructed jaundice is associated with all of the following except:
A. Elevated indirect serum bilirubinaemia.
B. Elevated direct serum bilirubinaemia.
C. Presence of bilirubinuria.
D. Urobilinogenuria is almost always present.
E. Raised alkaline phosphatase.


CBD stones should be suspected in any patient with cholecystitis
whose serum bilirubin level exceeds 85.5 _mol/L (5 mg/dL). The
maximum bilirubin level is seldom over 256.5 _mol/L (15.0 mg/dL)
in patients with choledocholithiasis unless concomitant hepatic disease
or another factor leading to marked hyperbilirubinemia exists. Serum
bilirubin levels of 342.0 _mol/L (20 mg/dL) or more should suggest
the possibility of neoplastic obstruction. The serum alkaline phosphatase
level is almost always elevated in biliary obstruction. A rise in
alkaline phosphatase often precedes clinical jaundice and may be the
only abnormality in routine liver function tests. There may be a twoto
tenfold elevation of serum aminotransferases, especially in association
with acute obstruction. Following relief of the obstructing process,
serum aminotransferase elevations usually return rapidly to normal,
while the serum bilirubin level may take 1 to 2 weeks to return
to normal. The alkaline phosphatase level usually falls slowly, lagging
behind the decrease in serum bilirubin

Acute cholecystitis: Leukocytosis and elevated LFTs with an obstructive picture (elevated alkaline phosphotase and bilirubin) are usually present

Q.1. A 30 years old man presented with generalized fatigue ability for 2 months. On examination he has found to have generalized lymph adenopathy. Differential diagnosis of this case includes all of the following except:
A. Lymphoma. T
B. HIV infection.
C. Hepatitis C virus infection.
D. Infectious mononucleosis.
E. Toxoplasmosis.

TABLE 54-1 Diseases Associated with Lymphadenopathy
1. Infectious diseases
a. Viral—infectious mononucleosis syndromes (EBV, CMV), infectious
hepatitis, herpes simplex, herpesvirus-6, varicella-zoster virus,
rubella, measles, adenovirus, HIV, epidemic keratoconjunctivitis,
vaccinia, herpesvirus-8
b. Bacterial—streptococci, staphylococci, cat-scratch disease, brucellosis,
tularemia, plague, chancroid, melioidosis, glanders, tuberculosis,
atypical mycobacterial infection, primary and secondary syphilis,
diphtheria, leprosy
c. Fungal—histoplasmosis, coccidioidomycosis, paracoccidioidomycosis
d. Chlamydial—lymphogranuloma venereum, trachoma
e. Parasitic—toxoplasmosis, leishmaniasis, trypanosomiasis, filariasis
f. Rickettsial—scrub typhus, rickettsialpox
2. Immunologic diseases
a. Rheumatoid arthritis
b. Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis
c. Mixed connective tissue disease
d. Systemic lupus erythematosus
e. Dermatomyositis
f. Sjo¨gren’s syndrome
g. Serum sickness
h. Drug hypersensitivity—diphenylhydantoin, hydralazine, allopurinol,
primidone, gold, carbamazepine, etc.
i. Angioimmunoblastic lymphadenopathy
j. Primary biliary cirrhosis
k. Graft-vs.-host disease
l. Silicone-associated
3. Malignant diseases
a. Hematologic—Hodgkin’s disease, non-Hodgkin’s lymphomas,
acute or chronic lymphocytic leukemia, hairy cell leukemia, malignant
histiocytosis, amyloidosis
b. Metastatic—from numerous primary sites
4. Lipid storage diseases—Gaucher’s, Niemann-Pick, Fabry, Tangier
5. Endocrine diseases—hyperthyroidism
6. Other disorders
a. Castleman’s disease (giant lymph node hyperplasia)
b. Sarcoidosis
c. Dermatopathic lymphadenitis
d. Lymphomatoid granulomatosis
e. Histiocytic necrotizing lymphadenitis (Kikuchi’s disease)
f. Sinus histiocytosis with massive lymphadenopathy (Rosai-Dorfman
disease)
g. Mucocutaneous lymph node syndrome (Kawasaki’s disease)

h. Histiocytosis X
i. Familial mediterranean fever
j. Severe hypertriglyceridemia
k. Vascular transformation of sinuses
l. Inflammatory pseudotumor of lymph node

Q.3. In rheumatoid arthritis all of the following are true except:
A. Causes destruction of articular cartilage.
B. Is frequently associated with the HLA antigen DR4.
C. Is equally common in males & females.
D. Is characterized by the presence of nodules.
E. Can involve any synovial joint in the body.
Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a chronic multisystem disease of unknown
cause. Although there are a variety of systemic manifestations,
the characteristic feature of RA is persistent inflammatory synovitis,
usually involving peripheral joints in a symmetric distribution. The
potential of the synovial inflammation to cause cartilage damage and
bone erosions and subsequent changes in joint integrity is the hallmark
of the disease. Despite its destructive potential, the course of RA can
be quite variable. Some patients may experience only a mild oligoarticular
illness of brief duration with minimal joint damage, whereas
others will have a relentless progressive polyarthritis with marked
functional impairment.
EPIDEMIOLOGY AND GENETICS The prevalence of RA is approximately
0.8% of the population (range 0.3 to 2.1%); women are affected approximately
three times more often than men. The prevalence increases
with age, and sex differences diminish in the older age group.
RA is seen throughout the world and affects all races. However, the
incidence and severity seem to be less in rural sub-Saharan Africa and
in Caribbean blacks. The onset is most frequent during the fourth and
fifth decades of life, with 80% of all patients developing the disease
between the ages of 35 and 50. The incidence of RA is more than six
times greater in 60- to 64-year-old women compared to 18- to 29-yearold
women. Recent data indicate that the incidence of RA may be
diminishing.
Family studies indicate a genetic predisposition. For example, severe
RA is found at approximately four times the expected rate in firstdegree
relatives of individuals with disease associated with the presence
of the autoantibody, rheumatoid factor; approximately 10% of
patients with RA will have an affected first-degree relative. Moreover,
monozygotic twins are at least four times more likely to be concordant
for RA than dizygotic twins, who have a similar risk of developing
RA as nontwin siblings. Only 15 to 20% of monozygotic twins are
concordant for RA, however, implying that factors other than genetics
play an important etiopathogenic role. Of note, the highest risk for
concordance of RA is noted in twins who have two HLA-DRB1 alleles
known to be associated with RA. The class II major histocompatibility
complex allele HLA-DR4 (DR_1*0401) and related alleles are known
to be major genetic risk factors for RA. Early studies showed that as
many as 70% of patients with classic or definite RA express HLADR4
compared with 28% of control individuals. An association with
HLA-DR4 has been noted in many populations, including North
American and European whites, Chippewa Indians, Japanese, and native
populations in India, Mexico, South America, and southern China.
In a number of groups, including Israeli Jews, Asian Indians, and Yakima
Indians of North America, however, there is no association between
the development of RA and HLA-DR4. In these individuals,
there is an association between RA and the closely related HLA-DR1
(DR_1*0101) in the former two groups and HLA-Dw16
(DR_1*1402) in the latter. It has been estimated that the risk of developing
RA in a person with DR_1*0401 or the closely related
DR_1*0404 is 1 in 35 and 1 in 20, respectively, whereas the presence
of both alleles puts persons at an even greater risk. In certain groups
of patients, there does not appear to be a clear association between
HLA-DR4–related epitopes and RA. Thus, nearly 75% of African-
American RA patients do not have this genetic element. Moreover,
there is an association with HLA-DR10 (DR_1*1001) in Spanish and
Italian patients, with HLA-DR9 (DR_1*0901) in Chileans, and with
HLA-DR3 (DR_1*0301) in Arab populations.
Additional genes in the HLA-D complex may also convey altered
susceptibility to RA. Certain HLA-DR alleles, including HLA-DR5
(DR_1*1101), HLA-DR2 (DR_1*1501), HLA-DR3 (DR_1*0301),
and HLA-DR7 (DR_1*0701), may protect against the development of
RA in that they tend to be found at lower frequency in RA patients
than in controls. Moreover, the HLA-DQ alleles, DQ_1*0301 and
DQ_1*0302, that are in linkage disequilibrium with HLA-DR4 and
DQ_1*0501, have also been associated with RA. This has raised the
possibility that HLA-DQ alleles may represent the actual RA susceptibility
genes, whereas specific HLA-DR alleles may convey protection.
In this model, the complement of HLA-DR and DQ alleles determines
RA susceptibility. Disease manifestations have also been
associated with HLA phenotype. Thus, early aggressive disease and
extraarticular manifestations are more frequent in patients with
DR_1*0401 or DR_1*0404, and more slowly progressive disease in
those with DR_1*0101. The presence of both DR_1*0401 and
DR_1*0404 appears to increase the risk for both aggressive articular
and extraarticular disease. It has been estimated that HLA genes contribute
only a portion of the genetic susceptibility to RA. Thus genes
outside the HLA complex also contribute. These include genes controlling
the expression of the antigen receptor on Tcells and both
immunoglobulin heavy and light chains. Moreover, polymorphisms in
the tumor necrosis factor (TNF) and the interleukin (IL) 10 genes are
also associated with RA, as is a region on chromosome 3 (3q13). In
addition, a number of other genetic regions appear to confer risk for
RA.
Genetic risk factors do not fully account for the incidence of RA,
suggesting that environmental factors also play a role in the etiology
of the disease. This is emphasized by epidemiologic studies in Africa
that have indicated that climate and urbanization have a major impact
on the incidence and severity of RA in groups of similar genetic background.
ETIOLOGY The cause of RA remains unknown. It has been suggested
that RA might be a manifestation of the response to an infectious agent
in a genetically susceptible host. Because of the worldwide distribution
of RA, it has been hypothesized that if an infectious agent is involved,
the organism must be ubiquitous. A number of possible causative
agents have been suggested, including Mycoplasma, Epstein-Barr virus
(EBV), cytomegalovirus, parvovirus, and rubella virus, but convincing
evidence that these or other infectious agents cause RA has
not emerged. The process by which an infectious agent might cause
chronic inflammatory arthritis with a characteristic distribution also
remains a matter of controversy. One possibility is that there is persistent
infection of articular structures or retention of microbial products
in the synovial tissues that generates a chronic inflammatory
response. Alternatively, the microorganism or response to the microorganism
might induce an immune response to components of the joint
by altering its integrity and revealing antigenic peptides. In this regard,
reactivity to type II collagen and heat shock proteins has been demonstrated.
Another possibility is that the infecting microorganism
might prime the host to cross-reactive determinants expressed within
the joint as a result of “molecular mimicry.” Recent evidence of similarity
between products of certain gram-negative bacteria and EBV
and the HLA-DR4 molecule itself has supported this possibility. Finally,
products of infecting microorganisms, such as superantigens,
might induce the disease. Superantigens are proteins with the capacity
to bind to HLA-DR molecules and particular V_ segments of the heterodimeric
Tcell receptor and stimulate specific T cells expressing the
V_ gene products (Chap. 295). The role of superantigens in the etiology
of RA remains speculative. Of all the potential environmental
triggers, the only one clearly associated with the development of RA
is cigarette smoking.




Signs and Symptoms of Articular Disease Pain, swelling, and tenderness
may initially be poorly localized to the joints. Pain in affected joints,
aggravated by movement, is the most common manifestation of established
RA. It corresponds in pattern to the joint involvement but does
not always correlate with the degree of apparent inflammation. Generalized
stiffness is frequent and is usually greatest after periods of
inactivity. Morning stiffness of greater than 1-h duration is an almost
invariable feature of inflammatory arthritis and may serve to distinguish
it from various noninflammatory joint disorders. Notably, however,
the presence of morning stiffness may not reliably distinguish
between chronic inflammatory and noninflammatory arthritides, as it
is also found frequently in the latter. The majority of patients will
experience constitutional symptoms such as weakness, easy fatigability,
anorexia, and weight loss. Although fever to 40_C occurs on occasion,
temperature elevation in excess of 38_C is unusual and suggests
the presence of an intercurrent problem such as infection.
Clinically, synovial inflammation causes swelling, tenderness, and
limitation of motion. Initially, impairment in physical function is
caused by pain and inflammation, and disability owing to this is a
frequent early feature of aggressive RA. Warmth is usually evident on
examination, especially of large joints such as
the knee, but erythema is infrequent. Pain originates
predominantly from the joint capsule,
which is abundantly supplied with pain fibers
and is markedly sensitive to stretching or distention.
Joint swelling results from accumulation
of synovial fluid, hypertrophy of the
synovium, and thickening of the joint capsule.
Initially, motion is limited by pain. The inflamed
joint is usually held in flexion to maximize
joint volume and minimize distention of
the capsule. Later, fibrous or bony ankylosis
or soft tissue contractures lead to fixed deformities.
Although inflammation can affect any diarthrodial
joint, RA most often causes symmetric
arthritis with characteristic involvement
of certain specific joints such as the
proximal interphalangeal and metacarpophalangeal
joints. The distal interphalangeal joints
are rarely involved. Synovitis of the wrist
joints is a nearly uniform feature of RA and
may lead to limitation of motion, deformity,
and median nerve entrapment (carpal tunnel
syndrome). Synovitis of the elbow joint often
leads to flexion contractures that may develop
early in the disease. The knee joint is commonly
involved with synovial hypertrophy,
chronic effusion, and frequently ligamentous
laxity. Pain and swelling behind the knee may be caused by extension
of inflamed synovium into the popliteal space (Baker’s cyst). Arthritis
in the forefoot, ankles, and subtalar joints can produce severe pain
with ambulation as well as a number of deformities. Axial involvement
is usually limited to the upper cervical spine. Involvement of the lumbar
spine is not seen, and lower back pain cannot be ascribed to rheumatoid
inflammation. On occasion, inflammation from the synovial
joints and bursae of the upper cervical spine leads to atlantoaxial subluxation.
This usually presents as pain in the occiput but on rare occasions
may lead to compression of the spinal cord.
With persistent inflammation, a variety of characteristic joint
changes develop. These can be attributed to a number of pathologic
events, including laxity of supporting soft tissue structures; damage or
weakening of ligaments, tendons, and the joint capsule; cartilage degradation;
muscle imbalance; and unopposed physical forces associated
with the use of affected joints. Characteristic changes of the hand
include (1) radial deviation at the wrist with ulnar deviation of the
digits, often with palmar subluxation of the proximal phalanges (“Z”
deformity); (2) hyperextension of the proximal interphalangeal joints,
with compensatory flexion of the distal interphalangeal joints (swanneck
deformity); (3) flexion contracture of the proximal interphalangeal
joints and extension of the distal interphalangeal joints (boutonnie`
re deformity); and (4) hyperextension of the first interphalangeal
joint and flexion of the first metacarpophalangeal joint with a consequent
loss of thumb mobility and pinch. Typical joint changes may
also develop in the feet, including eversion at the hindfoot (subtalar
joint), plantar subluxation of the metatarsal heads, widening of the
forefoot, hallux valgus, and lateral deviation and dorsal subluxation of
the toes. Later in the disease, disability is more related to structural
damage to articular structures.
Extraarticular Manifestations RA is a systemic disease with a variety of
extraarticular manifestations. Although these occur frequently, not all
of them have clinical significance. However, on occasion, they may
be the major evidence of disease activity and source of morbidity and
require management per se. As a rule, these manifestations occur in
individuals with high titers of autoantibodies to the Fc component of
immunoglobulin G (rheumatoid factors).
Rheumatoid nodules develop in 20 to 30% of persons with RA
They are usually found on periarticular structures, extensor surfaces,
or other areas subjected to mechanical pressure, but they can develop
elsewhere, including the pleura and meninges. Common locations include
the olecranon bursa, the proximal ulna, the Achilles tendon, and
the occiput. Nodules vary in size and consistency and are rarely symptomatic,
but on occasion they break down as a result of trauma or
become infected. They are found almost invariably in individuals with
circulating rheumatoid factor. Histologically, rheumatoid nodules consist
of a central zone of necrotic material including collagen fibrils,
noncollagenous filaments, and cellular debris; a midzone of palisading
macrophages that express HLA-DR antigens; and an outer zone of
granulation tissue. Examination of early nodules has suggested that
the initial event may be a focal vasculitis. In some patients, treatment
with methotrexate can increase the number of nodules dramatically.
Clinical weakness and atrophy of skeletal muscle are common.
Muscle atrophy may be evident within weeks of the onset of RA and
is usually most apparent in musculature approximating affected joints.
Muscle biopsy may show type II fiber atrophy and muscle fiber necrosis
with or without a mononuclear cell infiltrate.

Q.4. Which of the following indicate pre-renal failure:
A. Cast in the urine.
B. Low urine osmolality [< 400 mosmmol/kg]
C. Low urine sodium concentration [< 20mmol/L]
D. Low free water excretion.
E. Microscopic hematuria.
Acute renal failure (ARF) is a syndrome characterized by rapid decline
in glomerular filtration rate (hours to days), retention of nitrogenous
waste products, and perturbation of extracellular fluid volume and
electrolyte and acid-base homeostasis. ARF complicates approximately
5% of hospital admissions and up to 30% of admissions to
intensive care units. Oliguria (urine output _ 400 mL/d) is a frequent
but not invariable clinical feature (_50%). ARF is usually asymptomatic
and diagnosed when biochemical monitoring of hospitalized patients
reveals a recent increase in blood urea and creatinine
concentrations. It may complicate a wide range of diseases, which for
purposes of diagnosis and management are conveniently divided into
three categories: (1) diseases that cause renal hypoperfusion without
compromising the integrity of renal parenchyma (prerenal ARF, prerenal
azotemia) (_55%); (2) diseases that directly involve renal parenchyma
(intrinsic renal ARF, renal azotemia) (_40%); and (3)
diseases associated with urinary tract obstruction (postrenal ARF,
postrenal azotemia) (_5%). Most ARF is reversible, the kidney being
relatively unique among major organs in its ability to recover from
almost complete loss of function. Nevertheless, ARF is associated with
major in-hospital morbidity and mortality, in large part due to the
serious nature of the illnesses that precipitate the ARF.
ETIOLOGY AND PATHOPHYSIOLOGY
PRERENAL ARF (PRERENAL AZOTEMIA) Prerenal ARF is the most common
form of ARF and represents a physiologic response to mild to moderate
renal hypoperfusion. Prerenal ARF is by definition rapidly reversible
upon restoration of renal blood flow and glomerular
ultrafiltration pressure. Renal parenchymal tissue is not damaged; indeed,
kidneys from individuals with prerenal ARF function well when
transplanted into recipients with normal cardiovascular function. More
severe hypoperfusion may lead to ischemic injury of renal parenchyma
and intrinsic renal ARF (see below). Thus, prerenal ARF and intrinsic
renal ARF due to ischemia are part of a spectrum of manifestations of
renal hypoperfusion. As shown in Table 260-1, prerenal ARF can complicate
any disease that induces hypovolemia, low cardiac output, systemic
vasodilatation, or selective intrarenal vasoconstriction.
Hypovolemia leads to a fall in mean systemic arterial pressure,
which is detected as reduced stretch by arterial (e.g., carotid sinus)
and cardiac baroreceptors. Activated baroreceptors trigger a coordinated
series of neural and humoral responses designed to restore blood
volume and arterial pressure. These include activation of the sympathetic
nervous system and renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system and
release of arginine vasopressin (AVP; formerly called antidiuretic hormone).
Norepinephrine, angiotensin II, and AVP act in concert in an
attempt to preserve cardiac and cerebral perfusion by stimulating vasoconstriction
in relatively “nonessential” vascular beds, such as the
musculocutaneous and splanchnic circulations, by inhibiting salt loss
through sweat glands, by stimulating thirst and salt appetite, and by
promoting renal salt and water retention. Glomerular perfusion, ultrafiltration
pressure, and filtration rate are preserved during mild hypoperfusion
through several compensatory mechanisms. Stretch
receptors in afferent arterioles, in response to a reduction in perfusion
pressure, trigger afferent arteriolar vasodilatation through a local myogenic
reflex (autoregulation). Biosynthesis of vasodilator prostaglandins
(e.g., prostaglandin E2 and prostacyclin) is also enhanced, and
these compounds preferentially dilate afferent arterioles. In addition,
angiotensin II induces preferential constriction of efferent arterioles.
As a result, intraglomerular pressure is maintained, the fraction of
plasma flowing through glomerular capillaries that is filtered is increased
(filtration fraction), and glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is preserved.
During states of more severe hypoperfusion, these
compensatory responses are overwhelmed and GFR falls, leading to
prerenal ARF.
Autoregulatory dilatation of afferent arterioles is maximal at mean
systemic arterial blood pressures of _80 mmHg, and hypotension below
this level is associated with a precipitous decline in GFR. Lesser
degrees of hypotension may provoke prerenal ARF in the elderly and
in patients with diseases affecting the integrity of afferent arterioles
(e.g., hypertensive nephrosclerosis, diabetic vasculopathy). In addition,
drugs that interfere with adaptive responses in the renal microcirculation
may convert compensated renal hypoperfusion into overt
prerenal ARF or trigger progression of prerenal ARF to ischemic intrinsic
renal ARF (see below). Pharmacologic inhibitors of either renal
prostaglandin biosynthesis [cyclooxygenase inhibitors; nonsteroidal
anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)] or angiotensin-converting enzyme
(ACE) activity (ACE inhibitors) and angiotensin II receptor blockers
are the major culprits and should be used judiciously in the setting of
suspected renal hypoperfusion. NSAIDs do not compromise GFR in
healthy individuals but may precipitate prerenal ARF in patients with
volume depletion or in those with chronic renal insufficiency in whom
GFR is maintained, in part, through prostaglandin-mediated hyperfiltration
by the remaining functional nephrons. ACE inhibitors should
be used with special care in patients with bilateral renal artery stenosis
or unilateral stenosis in a solitary functioning kidney. In these settings
glomerular perfusion and filtration may be exquisitely dependent on
the actions of angiotensin II. Angiotensin II preserves glomerular filtration
pressure distal to stenoses by elevating systemic arterial pressure
and by triggering selective constriction of efferent arterioles.ACE
inhibitors blunt these responses and precipitate ARF, usually reversible,
in _30% of these patients.
Hepatorenal Syndrome This is a particularly aggressive form of ARF,
with many of the features of prerenal ARF, that frequently complicates
hepatic failure due to advanced cirrhosis or other liver diseases, including
malignancy, hepatic resection, and biliary obstruction. In fullblown
hepatorenal syndrome, ARF progresses even after optimization

TABLE 260-1 Classification and Major Causes of Acute Renal Failure (ARF)
PRERENAL ARF
I. Hypovolemia
A. Hemorrhage, burns, dehydration
B. Gastrointestinal fluid loss: vomiting, surgical drainage, diarrhea
C. Renal fluid loss: diuretics, osmotic diuresis (e.g., diabetes mellitus),
hypoadrenalism
D. Sequestration in extravascular space: pancreatitis, peritonitis,
trauma, burns, severe hypoalbuminemia
II. Low cardiac output
A. Diseases of myocardium, valves, and pericardium; arrhythmias;
tamponade
B. Other: pulmonary hypertension, massive pulmonary embolus, positive
pressure mechanical ventilation
III. Altered renal systemic vascular resistance ratio
A. Systemic vasodilatation: sepsis, antihypertensives, afterload reducers,
anesthesia, anaphylaxis
B. Renal vasoconstriction: hypercalcemia, norepinephrine, epinephrine,
cyclosporine, tacrolimus, amphotericin B
C. Cirrhosis with ascites (hepatorenal syndrome)
IV. Renal hypoperfusion with impairment of renal autoregulatory responses
Cyclooxygenase inhibitors, angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors
V. Hyperviscosity syndrome (rare)
Multiple myeloma, macroglobulinemia, polycythemia
INTRINSIC RENAL ARF
I. Renovascular obstruction (bilateral or unilateral in the setting of one
functioning kidney)
A. Renal artery obstruction: atherosclerotic plaque, thrombosis, embolism,
dissecting aneurysm, vasculitis
B. Renal vein obstruction: thrombosis, compression
II. Disease of glomeruli or renal microvasculature
A. Glomerulonephritis and vasculitis
B. Hemolytic uremic syndrome, thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura,
disseminated intravascular coagulation, toxemia of pregnancy,
accelerated hypertension, radiation nephritis, systemic lupus
erythematosus, scleroderma
III. Acute tubular necrosis
A. Ischemia: as for prerenal ARF (hypovolemia, low cardiac output,
renal vasoconstriction, systemic vasodilatation), obstetric complications
(abruptio placentae, postpartum hemorrhage)
B. Toxins
1. Exogenous: radiocontrast, cyclosporine, antibiotics (e.g., aminoglycosides),
chemotherapy (e.g., cisplatin), organic solvents
(e.g., ethylene glycol), acetaminophen, illegal abortifacients
2. Endogenous: rhabdomyolysis, hemolysis, uric acid, oxalate,
plasma cell dyscrasia (e.g., myeloma)
IV. Interstitial nephritis
A. Allergic: antibiotics (e.g., _-lactams, sulfonamides, trimethoprim,
rifampicin), nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory agents, diuretics, captopril
B. Infection: bacterial (e.g., acute pyelonephritis, leptospirosis), viral
(e.g., cytomegalovirus), fungal (e.g., candidiasis)
C. Infiltration: lymphoma, leukemia, sarcoidosis
D. Idiopathic
V. Intratubular deposition and obstruction
Myeloma proteins, uric acid, oxalate, acyclovir, methotrexate, sulphonamides
VI. Renal allograft rejection
POSTRENAL ARF (OBSTRUCTION)
I. Ureteric
Calculi, blood clot, sloughed papillae, cancer, external compression
(e.g., retroperitoneal fibrosis)
II. Bladder neck
Neurogenic bladder, prostatic hypertrophy, calculi, cancer, blood clot
III. Urethra
Stricture, congenital valve, phimosis
of systemic hemodynamics and carries a mortality rate of _90%.
The diagnosis and management of this condition are discussed in
Chaps. 289 and 291.

HEPATORENAL SYNDROME Definition and Pathogenesis Hepatorenal syndrome
is a serious complication in the patient with cirrhosis and ascites
and is characterized by worsening azotemia with avid sodium retention
and oliguria in the absence of identifiable specific causes of renal dysfunction.
The exact basis for this syndrome is not clear, but altered
renal hemodynamics appear to be involved. There is evidence for inappropriate
intense renal vasoconstriction, perhaps in response to the
splanchnic vasodilation accompanying cirrhosis. The kidneys are
structurally intact; urinalysis and pyelography are usually normal. Renal
biopsy, although rarely needed, is also normal, and in fact, kidneys
from such patients have been used successfully for renal transplantation.
Clinical Features and Diagnosis Worsening azotemia, hyponatremia, progressive
oliguria, and hypotension are the hallmarks of the hepatorenal
syndrome. This syndrome, which is distinct from prerenal azotemia,
may be precipitated by severe gastrointestinal bleeding, sepsis, or
overly vigorous attempts at diuresis or paracentesis; it may also occur
without an obvious cause. It is essential to exclude other causes of
renal impairment often seen in these patients. These include prerenal
azotemia or acute tubular necrosis due to hypovolemia (e.g., secondary
to gastrointestinal bleeding or diuretic therapy) or an increased nitrogen
load such as that seen as a result of bleeding. Drug nephrotoxicity
is also often a consideration, particularly in the patient who has received
agents such as aminoglycosides or contrast dye. The diagnosis
rests on the finding of an elevated serum creatinine level [_133_mol/
L (_1.5 g/dL)] that fails to improve with volume expansion or withdrawal
of diuretics, together with an unremarkable urine sediment. The
diagnosis is supported by the demonstration of avid urinary sodium
retention. Typically, the urine sodium concentration is _5 mmol/L, a
concentration lower than that generally found in uncomplicated pre
prerenal azotemia.
Treatment is usually unsuccessful. Although some patients with hypotension
and decreased plasma volume may respond to infusions of
salt-poor albumin, volume expansion must be undertaken with caution
to avoid precipitating variceal bleeding. Vasodilator therapy, including
intravenous infusions of low dose dopamine, is not effective. Evidence
for the benefit of systemic vasoconstrictors alone or in combination
with other agents such as terlipressin, norepinephrine with albumin,
and octreotide with midodrine has emerged recently, but additional
study is needed. While TIPS has been reported to improve renal function
in some patients, its use cannot be recommended. In appropriate
candidates, the treatment of choice for hepatorenal syndrome is liver
transplantation. In patients with spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, early
intravenous albumin infusion can prevent development of hepatorenal
syndrome in some patients.

Q.5. Hyponatremia occurs in the following conditions except:
A. Primary adrenocortical insufficiency.
B. Congestive heart failure.
C. Diabetic ketoacidosis with very high blood sugar.
D. Excessive production of vasopressin.
E. Diabetic insipidus.
TABLE 41-2 Causes of Hyponatremia
I. Pseudohyponatremia
A. Normal plasma osmolality
1. Hyperlipidemia
2. Hyperproteinemia
3. Posttransurethral resection of prostate/bladder tumor
B. Increased plasma osmolality
1. Hyperglycemia
2. Mannitol
II. Hypoosmolal hyponatremia
A. Primary Na_ loss (secondary water gain)
1. Integumentary loss: sweating, burns
2. Gastrointestinal loss: vomiting, tube drainage, fistula, obstruction,
diarrhea
3. Renal loss: diuretics, osmotic diuresis, hypoaldosteronism, saltwasting
nephropathy, postobstructive diuresis, nonoliguric acute
tubular necrosis
B. Primary water gain (secondary Na_ loss)
1. Primary polydipsia
2. Decreased solute intake (e.g., beer potomania)
3. AVP release due to pain, nausea, drugs
4. Syndrome of inappropriate AVP secretion
5. Glucocorticoid deficiency
6. Hypothyroidism
7. Chronic renal insufficiency
C. Primary Na_ gain (exceeded by secondary water gain)
1. Heart failure
2. Hepatic cirrhosis
3. Nephrotic syndrome


Q.9. Which of the following is a usual feature of interstitial lung disease like fibrosing alveolitis:
A. Fever.
B. Hemolysis.
C. Generalized wheezes.
D. Purulent sputum.
E. Fine crepitations
Posted by asghar at 7:41 AM 0 comments
Labels: questions and answers
Acute appendicitis
Acute appendicitis
Acute appendicitis is the commonest cause of abdominal pain in childhood requiring surgical intervention (Fig. 13.5). Although it may occur at any age, it is very uncommon in children less than 3 years old. The clinical features of acute uncomplicated appendicitis are
Symptoms
anorexia
vomiting (usually only a few times)
abdominal pain, initially central and colicky (appendicular midgut colic) but then localising to the right iliac fossa (from localised peritoneal inflammation)
Signs
flushed face with oral fetor
low-grade fever 37.2-38°C
abdominal pain aggravated by movement
persistent tenderness with guarding in the right iliac fossa (McBurney's point).

In preschool children:
the diagnosis is more difficult, particularly early in the disease
faecoliths are more common and can be seen on a plain abdominal X-ray
perforation may be rapid, as the omentum is less well developed and fails to surround the appendix, and the signs are easy to underestimate at this age
With a retrocaecal appendix, localised guarding may be absent, and in a pelvic appendix there may be few abdominal signs.

Appendicitis is a progressive condition and so repeated observation and clinical review every few hours are key to making the correct diagnosis, avoiding delay on the one hand and unnecessary laparotomy on the other.

No laboratory investigation or imaging is consistently helpful in making the diagnosis. A neutrophilia is not always present on a full blood count. White blood cells or organisms in the urine are not uncommon in appendicitis as the inflamed appendix may be adjacent to the ureter or bladder. In some centres, laparoscopy is available to see whether or not the appendix is inflamed. Appendicectomy is straightforward in uncomplicated appendicitis.

Complicated appendicitis includes the presence of an appendix mass, an abscess or perforation. If there is generalised guarding consistent with perforation, fluid resuscitation and intravenous antibiotics are given prior to laparotomy. If there is a palpable mass in the right iliac fossa and there are no signs of generalised peritonitis, it may be reasonable to elect for conservative management with intravenous antibiotics, with appendicectomy being performed after several weeks. If symptoms progress, laparotomy is indicated. If an abscess is confirmed on abdominal ultrasound, operative drainage and appendicectomy will be required.
Posted by asghar at 6:57 AM 0 comments
Labels: Acute appendicitis
4/15/09
sample question for Saudi Council for Health Specialties
Select the single best answer by blackening the circle of the correct answer [A,B,C,D, or E] on the answer sheet provided.

Q.1. A 30 years old man presented with generalized fatigue ability for 2 months. On examination he has found to have generalized lymph adenopathy. Differential diagnosis of this case includes all of the following except:
A. Lymphoma. T
B. HIV infection.
C. Hepatitis C virus infection.
D. Infectious mononucleosis.
E. Toxoplasmosis.
Q.2. Obstructed jaundice is associated with all of the following except:
A. Elevated indirect serum bilirubinaemia.
B. Elevated direct serum bilirubinaemia.
C. Presence of bilirubinuria.
D. Urobilinogenuria is almost always present.
E. Raised alkaline phosphatase.
Q.3. In rheumatoid arthritis all of the following are true except:
A. Causes destruction of articular cartilage.
B. Is frequently associated with the HLA antigen DR4.
C. Is equally common in males & females.
D. Is characterized by the presence of nodules.
E. Can involve any synovial joint in the body.
Q.4. Which of the following indicate pre-renal failure:
A. Cast in the urine.
B. Low urine osmolality [< 400 mosmmol/kg]
C. Low urine sodium concentration [< 20mmol/L]
D. Low free water excretion.
E. Microscopic hematuria.
Q.5. Hyponatremia occurs in the following conditions except:
A. Primary adrenocortical insufficiency.
B. Congestive heart failure.
C. Diabetic ketoacidosis with very high blood sugar.
D. Excessive production of vasopressin.
E. Diabetic insipidus.
Q.6. A 50 years old man was found unresponsive 3 hours after abdominal surgery. Arterial blood gas analysis on room air showed: pH – 7.2, PCO2 –65, HCO3 – 28, PO2 – 50, the most likely metabolic abnormality is:
A. Metabolic acidosis.
B. Respiratory & metabolic acidosis.
C. Metabolic acidosis.
D. Both respiratory acidosis & metabolic alkalosis.
E. Respiratory acidosis.
Q.7. A 35 years old lady, who acquired HIV infection after blood transfusion 10 years ago. Total CD4 lymphocyte count is < 100 cells/mm3. She is at high risk to develop any of the following problems except:
A. Tuberculosis.
B. CNS lymphoma.
C. Esophageal carcinoma.
D. Recurrent pneumonia.
E. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
Q.8. A 60 years old man presented with chest pain of 2 hours duration. ECG showed ST elevation in V1-V4 and frequent PVCs with a short run [6 beats] of ventricular tachycardia. Which of the following is an appropriate management?
A. Quinidine sulfates 200mg P.O. QID.
B. Digoxin 2mg IV push then 0.25mg IV OD for 3 days.
C. No anti arrhythmic therapy should be given until there is recurrent ventricular tachycardia.
D. Lidocane 75mg IV push followed continuous infusion at 2 mg/min.
E. Oxygen, Morphine sulfate and lasix.
Q.9. Which of the following is a usual feature of interstitial lung disease like fibrosing alveolitis:
A. Fever.
B. Hemolysis.
C. Generalized wheezes.
D. Purulent sputum.
E. Fine crepitations.
Q.10. Which of the following statements regarding the management of an acute sever asthma attack is correct:
A. Measurement of arterial blood gasses is important only in those who fail to respond to treatment.
B. Inhale glucocorticoids are indicated in large doses.
C. Rise of PaCO2 from low to normal value is a sign of good response.
D. IV aminophyline has a narrow therapeutic range.
E. Fluid restriction is indicated to relieve pulmonary edema.
Q.11. A young man took refrigerated food. 3 hours later he developed watery diarrhea. Which of the following organisms most likely caused the diarrhea?
A. Shigella.
B. Salmonella.
C. Campylobacter.
D. Staphylococci.
E. Giardia.
Q.12. In mitral stenosis, the following may be seen except?
A. P. mitral on ECG.
B. Double contour of right border of the heart [due to left atrial enlargement].
C. Left ventricular failure.
D. Right ventricular failure.
E. Atrial fibrillation.
Q.13. Giardiasis?
A. Involves mainly the terminal ileum & colon.
B. It is more common in hypogammaglobinimic patient.
C. Liver abscess is a recognized complication.
D. Is best treated by mebendazole.
E. May cause lower GI bleeding.
Q.14. The commonest cause of acute pancriatitis in adult in our community is?
A. Unknown.
B. Parasites.
C. Mumps virus.
D. Billiary stones.
E. Ethanol.
Q.15. All of the following are true about grave’s disease except?
A. Opthalmopathy invariably responds to anti-thyroid therapy.
B. Pre-tibial myxedema is a feature.
C. Atrial fibrillation may occur.
D. Patient may have difficulty in climbing stairs.
E. There is often a bruit heard over the thyroid gland.
Q.16. A 65 years old man present with difficulty in swallowing food. Causes of this condition include all of the following except?
A. Carcinoma of esophagus.
B. Reflux oesophagitis.
C. Achalasia of the cardia.
D. Motor neuron disease.
E. Herpes oesophagitis.
Q.17. Plasma ferritin is a reflection of?
A. Red cell mass.
B. Total body iron stores.
C. Bone marrow iron stores.
D. Hepatic iron content.
E. None of the above.
Q.18. A 26 years old man presented with headache & fatigue. Investigation revealed Hb 8gm/dl, MCV-85, Reticulocytes 10%. The following investigations are useful except?
A. Coomb’s test.
B. Sickling test.
C. Serum bilirubin.
D. Serum iron.
E. Hemoglobin electrophoresis.
Q.19. The following may induce seizures except:
A. Hypoxia.
B. Hypourecaemia.
C. Hypocalcaemia.
D. Hyponatremia.
E. Hypocalcaemia.
Q.20. A20 years old man presented with one-day history of headache & fever. On examination, he was restless, avoid light & his neck was resistant to flexion. Which of the following lines of management is correct?
A. X-ray of cervical spine.
B. Electroencephalogram.
C. Antinuclear antibodies.
D. Phenytoin.
E. None of the above.
Q.21. The following disease are recognized cause of high output cardiac Failure except?
A. Paget’s disease.
B. Thyrotoxicosis.
C. Hypertension.
D. Arterio-venous fistula.
E. Iron deficiency anemia.
Q.22. All of the pharmacological agents may be useful in the treatment of the acute manifestations of anaphylaxis except?
A. Diphenhydramine.
B. Hydralazine.
C. Oxygen.
D. Epinephrine.
E. Aminophyline.
Q.23. In ulcerative colitis?
A. Fistula is common finding.
B. Involve small& large bowel.
C. Pyoderma gangrenosum can occur.
D. Toxic mega colon should be diagnosed by colonoscopy.
E. Usual manifestation is diarrhea alternating with constipation.
Q.24. Appropriate management of patients with adrenal insufficiency secondary to hypo-pituitarism include all of the following except?
A. Glucocorticoids replacement.
B. Mineral corticoid therapy.
C. Steroid coverage for surgical procedures.
D. Instruction in self-injection of soluble glucocorticoids.
E. Wearing of identification bracelet bearing medical information.


Q.25. When a disease lasts 2 to 3 weeks with a fatality rate of 80%, then its incidence?
A. Is higher than its prevalence.
B. Is equal to its prevalence.
C. Is lower than its prevalence.
D. Has no relationship to its prevalence.
E. Is one half of its prevalence?
Q.26. The most common complication & the most common cause of death in transplant recipients is:
A. Rejection.
B. Steroid overdose.
C. Cardiac failure.
D. Toxic effects of immunosuppressive drugs.
E. Infection.
Q.27. A 40-years old women presented with bloody nipple discharge, no Family history of the same problem. The commonest cause is?
A. Breast carcinoma.
B. Intraductal papilloma.
C. Glactocoele.
D. Cystic hyperplasia.
E. Paget’s disease of the breast.
Q.28. Management of burn wound includes the following except?
A. Early debridement.
B. Skin grafting.
C. Escharotomy.
D. Tetanus immunization.
E. Topical application of penicillin powder.
Q.29. Clinical feature of toxic goiter includes the following except?
A. Restlessness.
B. Arrhythmias.
C. Hoarseness of voice.
D. Clammy palms.
E. Tremors of fingers.
Q.30. A 20 year's old male patient had a stab wound in the neck. All are true except?
A. A lacerated carotid artery [ies] is [are], better ligated because of sever bleeding.
B. False aneurysm may develop.
C. Injured major lymphatics are ligated.
D. Tracheal injury is closed primarily & tracheostomy performed.
E. Subcutaneous emphysema may performed.
Q.31. Veins of the legs affected in varicose veins are the following Except?
A. Long saphenous veins.
B. Short saphenous veins.
C. Inter communicating veins.
D. Venae perforantes.
E. Popliteal vein.
Q.32. Complication of surgical excision of abdominal aneurysm include the following except?
A. Paralytic ileus.
B. Ischemia of lower extremities.
C. Paraplegia.
D. Hepatic failure.
E. Renal failure.
Q.33. Torsion of testis. All are correct except?
A. Is treated with large doses of antibiotics.
B. Is torsion of the spermatic cord?
C. Is the result of “ Bell clapper” deformity?
D. Occurs spontaneously in young males.
E. May occur as a result of physical & sexual activities.
Q.34. Presentation of benign prostatic hyperplasia include the following except?
A. Nocturia.
B. Diminished size & force of urinary stream.
C. Prostatitis.
D. Hematuria.
E. Urinary retention.
Q.35. The pain of uretric calculus is referred?
A. To the flank.
B. To the tip of the penis.
C. To the anal area.
D. To the region of the bladder.
E. To the sacral area.
Q.36. In tracheo-esophageal fistula, management include the following Except?
A. Insertion of a chest tube.
B. Performing a gastrostomy.
C. Pulmonary toileting.
D. Insertion of a naso-esophageal stump catheter.
E. Intravenous antibiotics.
Q.37. On a ventilator, recommended tidal volume is?
A. 500cc.
B. 1 liter.
C. 1.5 liters.
D. 2 liters.
E. 2.5 liters
Q.38. A 70 years old women presented with a 3 days history of Perforated duodenal ulcer. She was febrile, semi comatose & dehydrated on admission. The best treatment is?
A. Transfuse with blood, rehydrated & perform vagotomy & drainage urgently.
B. Insert a nasogastric tube & connect to suction, hydrate the patient, give systemic antibiotic & observe.
C. Insert a nasogastric tube & connect to suction, hydrate the patient, give systemic antibiotic & and perform plication of the perforation.
D. Hydrate the patient, give blood, give systemic antibiotics& perform hemigastrectomy.
E. None of the above.
Q.39. A 2 months old child was found to be jaundice, to have an enlarged cirrhotic liver & ascites. The most likely diagnosis is?
A. Gilbert’s disease.
B. Criglar-Najjar disease.
C. Dubin-Johnson syndrome.
D. Congenital Billiary atresia.
E. Sickle cell disease.
Q.40. An important clinical finding in acute pancriatitis is?
A. Rebound tenderness.
B. Presence of some relief on bending forward or on maintaining a sitting position.
C. Guarding of the abdomen.
D. Hypoactive bowel sound.
E. Abdominal pain.
Q.41.Two weeks after cholecystectomy a patient present with progressive jaundice & possible ascites. The most indicate investigation is?
A. CT scan.
B. Intravenous cholangiography.
C. Blood for hepatitis.
D. Needle liver biopsy.
E. Endoscopic retrograde cholangio-pancreatography [ERCP]
Q.42. In blunt trauma to the abdomen the most commonly injured organ Is?
A. The small intestine.
B. The spleen.
C. The bladder.
D. The kidney.
E. The liver.
Q.43. A 20 years old boy sustained a blunt trauma to the abdomen in an automobile accident. Intraperitoneal bleeding is suspected. The most informative investigation is?
A. Plain X-ray of the abdomen.
B. Diagnostic peritoneal lavage.
C. PCV estimation.
D. Intravenous urogram.
E. Celiac angiography.
Q.44. The following are complication of laparoscopic cholecystectomy Except?
A. Bile leak.
B. Persistent pneumoperitoneum.
C. Shoulder tips pain.
D. Ascites.
E. Supraumblical incisional hernia.
Q.45. Differential diagnosis of acute appendicitis includes the Following except?
A. Mittleschmerz disease.
B. Carcinoma of caecum.
C. Pelvic inflammatory disease.
D. Diverticulitis.
E. Mesenteric lymphadenitis.
Q.46. Complication of colostomy include the following except?
A. Malabsorption of water.
B. Retraction.
C. Prolapse.
D. Excoriation of skin.
E. Obstruction.
Q.47. The greatest metabolic activity of thyroid hormone is due to?
A. Thyroxin.
B. Monoiodotyrosine.
C. Diiodotryrosine.
D. Triiodothyronine.
E. Thyroglobulin.
Q.48. Complication of osteomyelitis include the following except?
A. Septic arthritis.
B. Arrest of bone growth.
C. Pyomyositis.
D. Septicemia.
E. Destruction of epiphyseal plate.
Q.49. An incomplete lesion on the side of the spinal cord produces?
A. Decorticate rigidity.
B. Decerebrate rigidity.
C. Absence of spino-ciliary cortex.
D. Brown-sequard syndrome.
A. E. All the above.
Q.50. The standard deviated is:
A. A measure of location.
B. Equivalent to the range.
C. A measure of normality of the data.
D. A measure of variability.
E. A measure of central tendency.

Q.51. Factors that is important in the patho-physiology of pelvic inflammatory disease include the following except?
A. Menstruation.
B. Sperm.
C. Cervical mucus.
D. Uterine fibroids.
E. Anaerobic bacteria.
Q.52. All of the following factors is necessary for the menstruation to occur except?
A. Hypothalamic releasing hormones.
B. An endometrium response to sex steroids.
C. Gonadotrophin.
D. Patent fallopian tube.
E. Ovarian steroid hormones.
Q.53. Gross microscopic feature of myomas include all of the following Except?
A. A whorled like appearance.
B. Bundles of smooth muscle fibers.
C. High mitosis figure.
D. Central degeneration.
E. Peripheral vascularity.

Q.54. S/S associated with a hydatidiform mole include all of the following except?
A. First trimester bleeding.
B. A uterus large than the expected gestational age.
C. Hypothyroidism.
D. Pre-eclampsia at 14 weeks gestation.
E. Nausea & vomiting.
Q.55. Correct statements regarding the respiratory distress syndrome Include all of the following except?
A. There is deficiency of surfactant in the lung.
B. Hypoxia & acidosis stimulate the production of the lung phospholipids.
C. It is the most common problem of the pre-term neonate.
D. There is a ground-glass appearance on X-ray.
E. Positive & expiratory pressure is useful treatment modalities.
Q.56. A women States that her last menstruation period was 7 weeks ago & that she had several days of light bleeding & lower abdominal discomfort. She ahs previously had a positive home pregnancy test. Which of the following studies would you request at this time?
A. Human chorionic Gonadotrophin.
B. Human placental lactogen.
C. Progesterone.
D. Estriol.
E. Prolactin.
Q.57. The main health hazard of menopause is?
A. Cardiovascular disease.
B. Pelvic relaxation.
C. Endometrial cancer.
D. Depression.
E. Osteoporosis.
Q.58. Postpartum hemorrhage could be a reasonable possibility in all of the following situations except?
A. Hydromnios.
B. Triplets.
C. Prolong labour.
D. Erythroblastosis.
E. Thrombocytopenia.
Q.59. Which of the following S/S needs not to be reported immediately as a potential danger signal in a pregnant woman?
A. Vaginal bleeding.
B. Sever headache.
C. Swelling of the ankle & feet.
D. Blurring of the vision.
E. Escape of fluid from the vagina.
Q.60. Deficiency of which of the following substances is likely in a pregnant vegetarian?
A. Folic acid.
B. Vitamin B12.
C. Protein.
D. Calcium.
E. Iron.
Q.61. Naegele’s for estimating a women’s due date is based on all of the following factors except?
A. Regular monthly menstrual cycles.
B. A pregnancy of 280 days.
C. Ovulation about day 14.
D. Cycle regulation with birth control pills prior to conception.
E. Conception at mid-cycle.
Q.62. Appropriate screening tests in an early, uncomplicated pregnancy include all of the following except?
A. Repeat serum HCG level.
B. Hemoglobin.
C. Serology.
D. Cervical cytology.
E. Blood type & Rh.

Q.63. Factors that can contribute to an acute urinary Tract infection during pregnancy, delivery, or the puerperium include all
of the following except?
A. Compression of the ureter by the large uterus at the pelvic brim.
B. Increased urethral tone & peristalsis.
C. Asymptomatic bacteriuria.
D. Decreased bladder sensitivity after epidural anesthesia.
E. Bladder catheterization following delivery.
Q.64. Appropriate form of management for the pre-eclemptic patient [B.P of 140/95 & 1+ proteinuria] include all of the following except?
A. Bed rest.
B. Non-stress tests.
C. Hospitalization.
D. Serial sonography of the fetus.
E. Diuretics.
Q.65. The most accurate & definitive documentation of fetal life is made by?
A. Fetoscope.
B. Leopoid maneuver.
C. Pelvic X-ray.
D. Real time.
E. Doppler ultrasound.
Q.66. The average length of the menstrual cycle is?
A. 22 days.
B. 25 days.
C. 28 days.
D. 35 days.
E. 38 days.
Q.67. All of the following factors is associated with an increased risk of pelvic inflammatory disease except?
A. Onset of intercourse at age 15.
B. An elective abortion.
C. Oral contraceptive.
D. Hystero-salphingography.
E. Used of copper IUD.
Q.68. All of the following procedures can aid in the diagnosis of pelvic inflammatory disease except?
A. Laparoscopy.
B. Ultrasound.
C. Coldocentesis.
D. Rectal examination.
E. Hystero-salphingography.
Q.69. If a women present with chronic yeast infection, it is important to elicit a history of all of the following except?
A. Diabetes.
B. Pregnancy.
C. Use of antibiotics.
D. Use of oral contraceptive.
E. Use of vinegar douches.
Q.70. Atrophic vaginitis would be expected in all of the following Clinical situation except?
A. Menopause.
B. Lactation.
C. Oral contraceptive use.
D. Surgical castration in young women.
E. Psuedo-menopause during endometriosis therapy.
Q.71. For women over 35 years of age with abdominal uterine bleeding, the most accurate diagnostic procedure is?
A. Basal body temperature.
B. Endometrial biopsy.
C. Fractional dilatation & curettage.
D. Hysteroscopy.
E. Hormone therapy.
Q.72. All of the therapeutic procedures are recommended for ectopic pregnancies except?
A. Salpingectomy.
B. Salphingo-oophorectomy.
C. Linear Salpingectomy.
D. Segmental resection of the portion of the tube containing the ectopic pregnancy.
E. Milking the enrapture pregnancy from the tube.
Q.73. What is the most accurate method of diagnosing an ectopic pregnancy?
A. Pelvic ultrasound.
B. Culdocentesis.
C. Laparoscopy.
D. Measurement of serial B-HCG levels.
E. Endometrial biopsy.
Q.74. All the following factors are evidence that ovulation has Occurred except?
A. Rise in basal body temperature.
B. Pregnancy.
C. Progesterone level above 3 ng/ml.
D. Secretary endometrium.
E. The occurrence of menses.
Q75. Incidence is calculated by the number of?
A. Old case during the study period.
B. New case during the study.
C. New case at a point in time.
D. Old case at a point in time.
E. Existing cases at a study period.
Q.76. Which of the following would be the most valuable measurement in the monitoring the clinical response of a patient with acute hemorrhage?
A. Hematocrit.
B. Hemoglobin.
C. Vital signs.
D. Platelet count.
E. Volume of blood lost.
Q.77. The most important cause of epistaxis in children is?
A. Trauma.
B. Polyp.
C. Sinusitis.
D. Thrombocytopenia.
E. Dry air.
Q.78. The combination of Ataxia, a positive Babinski sing & absence of deep tendon reflexes of ankle indicate?
A. Ataxia telangiectasia.
B. Friedreich’ ataxia.
C. Ganglioneuroblastoma.
D. Parinaud syndrome [pinealoma]
E. Lead poisoning.
Q.79. All of the following are true in pyloric stenosis except?
A. Incidence in male is higher than in female.
B. Onset is generally late in the first month of life.
C. Jaundice occurs in association.
D. Vomitus is bile stained.
E. Appetite is good.
Q.80. Children are expected to walk alone without support by age?
A. 6 months.
B. 9 months.
C. 15 months.
D. 18 months.
E. 20 months.
Q.81. Gastric lavage is contraindicated after Ingestion of?
A. Aspirin.
B. Diazepam.
C. Castor beans.
D. Drain-cleaning solution.
E. Vitamin D.
Q.82. Apgar score takes all of the following except?
A. Blood pressure.
B. Heart rate.
C. Respiratory effort.
D. Color.
E. Muscles tone.
Q.83. Which statement is true about bacterial pneumonia in children?
A. It occurs following most upper respiratory infections.
B. It is unusual event in normal children.
C. Staphylococcus pneumonia is the leading cause.
D. Physical examination in infant is diagnostic.
E. The mortality rate of pneumococcal pneumonia approaches 3-5%.
Q.84.The treatment of children with cleft palate may be complicated by?
A. Speech disorder.
B. Dental caries.
C. Malocclusion.
D. Otitis media.
E. Obstructed apnea.
Q.85. A new born Exhibits respiratory distress, low blood pressure, hyper resonance & diminished breath sounds over side of the chest. The most likely diagnosis is?
A. Staphylococcus pneumonia.
B. Hyaline membrane disease.
C. Pneumothorax.
D. Primary atelectasis.
E. Diaphragmatic hernia.
Q.86. Central cyanosis is present in the following except?
A. Transposition of great arteries.
B. Tricuspid atresia.
C. Total anomalous pulmonary venous drainage.
D. Isolated pulmonary stenosis.
E. Pulmonary atresia.
Q.87. Each of the following statements regarding oral rehydration therapy is true except?
A. It can be used to treat acute diarrhea in patients of all age.
B. Oral rehydration solution should contain 5 to 7% glucose.
C. Oral rehydration solution containing 45 mEq/l of sodium & those with 75 mEq/l of sodium generally is equally efficacious.
D. It has been used successfully to treat patients with Hyponatremia.
E. All of the above.


Q.88. A healthy infant is born at 30 weeks gestation. Size & development is appropriate for gestational age. Her mother wants to breast feed her. A true statement about breast-feeding for the preterm infant is?
A. The volume of the breast milk will be greater in mothers who have breast feed previously.
B. Human milk production is optimal if the mother expresses milk once daily until the infant begins nursing.
C. After only 30 weeks gestation, maternal milk production rarely is sufficient to permit breast-feeding.
D. The mother should begin expressing milk as soon as possible.
E. None of the above.
Q.89. Examination of the CSF of a 2 years old child supports the diagnosis of bacterial meningitis. The child is moderately dehydrated. The best approach to prescribing fluid therapy for this child would be to?
A. Restrict fluid to prevent the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone [SIADH].
B. Treat the dehydration immediately.
C. Consider the possibility of SIADH only if the child’s urine sodium concentration is greater than 60 mEq/l.
D. Treat the dehydration after antibiotic therapy has been provided for 24 hours.
E. None of the above.
Q.90. A 2 years old patient is brought to you because of snoring & Disturb sleep. You suspect upper airway obstruction with sleep apnea. Each of the following statements about this condition is true except?
A. Death can occur.
B. Cardiac failure may occur.
C. Systemic hypertension is an associated finding.
D. Pulmonary hypertension is an irreversible side effect.
E. None of the above.
Q.91. Of the following problems, the most common bleeding diathesis that would present as recurring epistaxis is?
A. Hemophilia A [factor VIII]
B. Hemophilia B [factor IX]
C. Hemophilia C [factor XI]
D. Hageman factor deficiency.
E. Von Willebrand disease.
Q.92. The control of blood sugar in juvenile diabetes mellitus is usually achieved by?
A. Short & intermediate insulin.
B. Long acting insulin.
C. Intermediate insulin.
D. Oral hypoglycemic.
E. Short acting insulin.
Q.93. The best source of iron for the 3 months old infant is?
A. Iron fortified cereals.
B. Yellow vegetable.
C. Fruits.
D. Breast milk.
E. 2% low fat cow’s milk.
Q.94. Among the following, the least likely risk factor for hearing loss is:
A. A maternal history of use of Phenytoin during pregnancy.
B. A family history of hearing impairment.
C. Craniofacial abnormality.
D. Birth weights less than 1500 Gms.
E. Neonatal hyperbilirubinemia.
Q.95. Protein losing gastro-enteropathy has been associated with all of the following except?
A. Cow milk protein.
B. Lymphangiectasia.
C. Granulomatous disease of intestine.
D. Ulcerative colitis.
E. Soy protein formula.
Q.96. Cellulites occurring about the face in young children [6 to 24 months] & associated with fever & a purple skin discoloration is most often caused by?
A. Group A beta hemolytic streptococci.
B. Haemophilus influenzae.
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
D. Staphylococcus aureus.
E. None of the above.
Q.97. All of the following might be possible etiologies for discoloration of the teeth of a 15 months old infant except?
A. Iron medication.
B. Dental decay.
C. Tetracycline given to mother during pregnancy.
D. Lactose free formula.
E. Important fluoride administration.
Select the single best answer by blackening the circle of the correct answer [A,B,C,D, or E] on the answer sheet provided.
Q.1. A 30 years old man presented with generalized fatigue ability for 2 months. On examination he has found to have generalized lymph adenopathy. Differential diagnosis of this case includes all of the following except:
A. Lymphoma. T
B. HIV infection.
C. Hepatitis C virus infection.
D. Infectious mononucleosis.
E. Toxoplasmosis.
Q.2. Obstructed jaundice is associated with all of the following except:
A. Elevated indirect serum bilirubinaemia.
B. Elevated direct serum bilirubinaemia.
C. Presence of bilirubinuria.
D. Urobilinogenuria is almost always present.
E. Raised alkaline phosphatase.

Q.3. In rheumatoid arthritis all of the following are true except:
A. Causes destruction of articular cartilage.
B. Is frequently associated with the HLA antigen DR4.
C. Is equally common in males & females.
D. Is characterized by the presence of nodules.
E. Can involve any synovial joint in the body.
Q.4. Which of the following indicate pre-renal failure:
A. Cast in the urine.
B. Low urine osmolality [< 400 mosmmol/kg]
C. Low urine sodium concentration [< 20mmol/L]
D. Low free water excretion.
E. Microscopic hematuria.
Q.5. Hyponatremia occurs in the following conditions except:
A. Primary adrenocortical insufficiency.
B. Congestive heart failure.
C. Diabetic ketoacidosis with very high blood sugar.
D. Excessive production of vasopressin.
E. Diabetic insipidus.
Q.6. A 50 years old man was found unresponsive 3 hours after abdominal surgery. Arterial blood gas analysis on room air showed: pH – 7.2, PCO2 –65, HCO3 – 28, PO2 – 50, the most likely metabolic abnormality is:
A. Metabolic acidosis.
B. Respiratory & metabolic acidosis.
C. Metabolic acidosis.
D. Both respiratory acidosis & metabolic alkalosis.
E. Respiratory acidosis.
Q.7. A 35 years old lady, who acquired HIV infection after blood transfusion 10 years ago. Total CD4 lymphocyte count is < 100 cells/mm3. She is at high risk to develop any of the following problems except:
A. Tuberculosis.
B. CNS lymphoma.
C. Esophageal carcinoma.
D. Recurrent pneumonia.
E. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma.
Q.8. A 60 years old man presented with chest pain of 2 hours duration. ECG showed ST elevation in V1-V4 and frequent PVCs with a short run [6 beats] of ventricular tachycardia. Which of the following is an appropriate management?
A. Quinidine sulfates 200mg P.O. QID.
B. Digoxin 2mg IV push then 0.25mg IV OD for 3 days.
C. No anti arrhythmic therapy should be given until there is recurrent ventricular tachycardia.
D. Lidocane 75mg IV push followed continuous infusion at 2 mg/min.
E. Oxygen, Morphine sulfate and lasix.
Q.9. Which of the following is a usual feature of interstitial lung disease like fibrosing alveolitis:
A. Fever.
B. Hemolysis.
C. Generalized wheezes.
D. Purulent sputum.
E. Fine crepitations.
Q.10. Which of the following statements regarding the management of an acute sever asthma attack is correct:
A. Measurement of arterial blood gasses is important only in those who fail to respond to treatment.
B. Inhale glucocorticoids are indicated in large doses.
C. Rise of PaCO2 from low to normal value is a sign of good response.
D. IV aminophyline has a narrow therapeutic range.
E. Fluid restriction is indicated to relieve pulmonary edema.
Q.11. A young man took refrigerated food. 3 hours later he developed watery diarrhea. Which of the following organisms most likely caused the diarrhea?
A. Shigella.
B. Salmonella.
C. Campylobacter.
D. Staphylococci.
E. Giardia.
Q.12. In mitral stenosis, the following may be seen except?
A. P. mitral on ECG.
B. Double contour of right border of the heart [due to left atrial enlargement].
C. Left ventricular failure.
D. Right ventricular failure.
E. Atrial fibrillation.
Q.13. Giardiasis?
A. Involves mainly the terminal ileum & colon.
B. It is more common in hypogammaglobinimic patient.
C. Liver abscess is a recognized complication.
D. Is best treated by mebendazole.
E. May cause lower GI bleeding.
Q.14. The commonest cause of acute pancriatitis in adult in our community is?
A. Unknown.
B. Parasites.
C. Mumps virus.
D. Billiary stones.
E. Ethanol.


Q.15. All of the following are true about grave’s disease except?
A. Opthalmopathy invariably responds to anti-thyroid therapy.
B. Pre-tibial myxedema is a feature.
C. Atrial fibrillation may occur.
D. Patient may have difficulty in climbing stairs.
E. There is often a bruit heard over the thyroid gland.
Q.16. A 65 years old man present with difficulty in swallowing food.
Causes of this condition include all of the following except?
A. Carcinoma of esophagus.
B. Reflux oesophagitis.
C. Achalasia of the cardia.
D. Motor neuron disease.
E. Herpes oesophagitis.
Q.17. Plasma ferritin is a reflection of?
A. Red cell mass.
B. Total body iron stores.
C. Bone marrow iron stores.
D. Hepatic iron content.
E. None of the above.
Q.18. A 26 years old man presented with headache & fatigue. Investigation revealed Hb 8gm/dl, MCV-85, Reticulocytes 10%. The following investigations are useful except?
A. Coomb’s test.
B. Sickling test.
C. Serum bilirubin.
D. Serum iron.
E. Hemoglobin electrophoresis.
Q.19. The following may induce seizures except:
A. Hypoxia.
B. Hypourecaemia.
C. Hypocalcaemia.
D. Hyponatremia.
E. Hypocalcaemia.
Q.20. A20 years old man presented with one-day history of headache & fever. On examination, he was restless, avoid light & his neck was resistant to flexion. Which of the following lines of management is correct?
A. X-ray of cervical spine.
B. Electroencephalogram.
C. Antinuclear antibodies.
D. Phenytoin.
E. None of the above.
Q.21. The following disease are recognized cause of high output cardiac Failure except?
A. Paget’s disease.
B. Thyrotoxicosis.
C. Hypertension.
D. Arterio-venous fistula.
E. Iron deficiency anemia.
Q.22. All of the pharmacological agents may be useful in the treatment of the acute manifestations of anaphylaxis except?
A. Diphenhydramine.
B. Hydralazine.
C. Oxygen.
D. Epinephrine.
E. Aminophyline.
Q.23. In ulcerative colitis?
A. Fistula is common finding.
B. Involve small& large bowel.
C. Pyoderma gangrenosum can occur.
D. Toxic mega colon should be diagnosed by colonoscopy.
E. Usual manifestation is diarrhea alternating with constipation.
Q.24. Appropriate management of patients with adrenal insufficiency secondary to hypo-pituitarism include all of the following except?
A. Glucocorticoids replacement.
B. Mineral corticoid therapy.
C. Steroid coverage for surgical procedures.
D. Instruction in self-injection of soluble glucocorticoids.
E. Wearing of identification bracelet bearing medical information.
Q.25. When a disease lasts 2 to 3 weeks with a fatality rate of 80%, then its incidence?
A. Is higher than its prevalence.
B. Is equal to its prevalence.
C. Is lower than its prevalence.
D. Has no relationship to its prevalence.
E. Is one half of its prevalence?
Q.26. The most common complication & the most common cause of death in transplant recipients is:
A. Rejection.
B. Steroid overdose.
C. Cardiac failure.
D. Toxic effects of immunosuppressive drugs.
E. Infection.

Q.27. A 40-years old women presented with bloody nipple discharge, no Family history of the same problem. The commonest cause is?
A. Breast carcinoma.
B. Intraductal papilloma.
C. Glactocoele.
D. Cystic hyperplasia.
E. Paget’s disease of the breast.
Q.28. Management of burn wound includes the following except?
A. Early debridement.
B. Skin grafting.
C. Escharotomy.
D. Tetanus immunization.
E. Topical application of penicillin powder.
Q.29. Clinical feature of toxic goiter includes the following except?
A. Restlessness.
B. Arrhythmias.
C. Hoarseness of voice.
D. Clammy palms.
E. Tremors of fingers.
Q.30. A 20 year's old male patient had a stab wound in the neck. All are true except?
A. A lacerated carotid artery [ies] is [are], better ligated because of sever bleeding.
B. False aneurysm may develop.
C. Injured major lymphatics are ligated.
D. Tracheal injury is closed primarily & tracheostomy performed.
E. Subcutaneous emphysema may performed.
Q.31. Veins of the legs affected in varicose veins are the following Except?
A. Long saphenous veins.
B. Short saphenous veins.
C. Inter communicating veins.
D. Venae perforantes.
E. Popliteal vein.
Q.32. Complication of surgical excision of abdominal aneurysm include the following except?
A. Paralytic ileus.
B. Ischemia of lower extremities.
C. Paraplegia.
D. Hepatic failure.
E. Renal failure.
Q.33. Torsion of testis. All are correct except?
A. Is treated with large doses of antibiotics.
B. Is torsion of the spermatic cord?
C. Is the result of “ Bell clapper” deformity?
D. Occurs spontaneously in young males.
E. May occur as a result of physical & sexual activities.
Q.34. Presentation of benign prostatic hyperplasia include the following except?
A. Nocturia.
B. Diminished size & force of urinary stream.
C. Prostatitis.
D. Hematuria.
E. Urinary retention.
Q.35. The pain of uretric calculus is referred?
A. To the flank.
B. To the tip of the penis.
C. To the anal area.
D. To the region of the bladder.
E. To the sacral area.
Q.36. In tracheo-esophageal fistula, management include the following Except?
A. Insertion of a chest tube.
B. Performing a gastrostomy.
C. Pulmonary toileting.
D. Insertion of a naso-esophageal stump catheter.
E. Intravenous antibiotics.
Q.37. On a ventilator, recommended tidal volume is?
A. 500cc.
B. 1 liter.
C. 1.5 liters.
D. 2 liters.
E. 2.5 liters
Q.38. A 70 years old women presented with a 3 days history of Perforated duodenal ulcer. She was febrile, semi comatose & dehydrated on admission. The best treatment is?
A. Transfuse with blood, rehydrated & perform vagotomy & drainage urgently.
A. Insert a nasogastric tube & connect to suction, hydrate the patient, give systemic antibiotic & observe.
B. Insert a nasogastric tube & connect to suction, hydrate the
C. patient, give systemic antibiotic & and perform plication of the perforation.
D. Hydrate the patient, give blood, give systemic antibiotics& perform hemigastrectomy.
E. None of the above.

Q.39. A 2 months old child was found to be jaundice, to have an enlarged cirrhotic liver & ascites. The most likely diagnosis is?
A. Gilbert’s disease.
B. Criglar-Najjar disease.
C. Dubin-Johnson syndrome.
D. Congenital Billiary atresia.
E. Sickle cell disease.
Q.40. An important clinical finding in acute pancriatitis is?
A. Rebound tenderness.
B. Presence of some relief on bending forward or on maintaining a sitting position.
C. Guarding of the abdomen.
D. Hypoactive bowel sound.
E. Abdominal pain.

Q.41. Two weeks after cholecystectomy a patient present with progressive jaundice & possible ascites. The most indicate
investigation is?
A. CT scan.
B. Intravenous cholangiography.
C. Blood for hepatitis.
D. Needle liver biopsy.
E. Endoscopic retrograde cholangio-pancreatography [ERCP]
Q.42. In blunt trauma to the abdomen the most commonly injured organIs?
A. The small intestine.
B. The spleen.
C. The bladder.
D. The kidney.
E. The liver.
Q.43. A 20 years old boy sustained a blunt trauma to the abdomen in an automobile accident. Intraperitoneal bleeding is suspected. The most informative investigation is?
A. Plain X-ray of the abdomen.
B. Diagnostic peritoneal lavage.
C. PCV estimation.
D. Intravenous urogram.
E. Celiac angiography.
Q.44. The following are complication of laparoscopic cholecystectomy Except?
A. Bile leak.
B. Persistent pneumoperitoneum.
C. Shoulder tips pain.
D. Ascites.
E. Supraumblical incisional hernia.
Q.45. Differential diagnosis of acute appendicitis includes the Following except?
A. Mittleschmerz disease.
B. Carcinoma of caecum.
C. Pelvic inflammatory disease.
D. Diverticulitis.
E. Mesenteric lymphadenitis.
Q.46. Complication of colostomy include the following except?
A. Malabsorption of water.
B. Retraction.
C. Prolapse.
D. Excoriation of skin.
E. Obstruction.
Q.47. The greatest metabolic activity of thyroid hormone is due to?
A. Thyroxin.
B. Monoiodotyrosine.
C. Diiodotryrosine.
D. Triiodothyronine.
E. Thyroglobulin.
Q.48. Complication of osteomyelitis include the following except?
A. Septic arthritis.
B. Arrest of bone growth.
C. Pyomyositis.
D. Septicemia.
E. Destruction of epiphyseal plate.
Q.49. An incomplete lesion on the side of the spinal cord produces?
A. Decorticate rigidity.
B. Decerebrate rigidity.
C. Absence of spino-ciliary cortex.
D. Brown-sequard syndrome.
A. E. All the above.
Q.50. The standard deviated is:
A. A measure of location.
B. Equivalent to the range.
C. A measure of normality of the data.
D. A measure of variability.
E. A measure of central tendency.
Q.51. Factors that is important in the patho-physiology of pelvic inflammatory disease include the following except?
A. Menstruation.
B. Sperm.
C. Cervical mucus.
D. Uterine fibroids.
E. Anaerobic bacteria.
Q.52. All of the following factors is necessary for the menstruation to occur except?
A. Hypothalamic releasing hormones.
B. An endometrium response to sex steroids.
C. Gonadotrophin.
D. Patent fallopian tube.
E. Ovarian steroid hormones.
Q.53. Gross microscopic feature of myomas include all of the following Except?
A. A whorled like appearance.
B. Bundles of smooth muscle fibers.
C. High mitosis figure.
D. Central degeneration.
E. Peripheral vascularity.
Q.54. S/S associated with a hydatidiform mole include all of the following except?
A. First trimester bleeding.
B. A uterus large than the expected gestational age.
C. Hypothyroidism.
D. Pre-eclampsia at 14 weeks gestation.
E. Nausea & vomiting.
Q.55. Correct statements regarding the respiratory distress syndrome Include all of the following except?
A. There is deficiency of surfactant in the lung.
B. Hypoxia & acidosis stimulate the production of the lung phospholipids.
C. It is the most common problem of the pre-term neonate.
D. There is a ground-glass appearance on X-ray.
E. Positive & expiratory pressure is useful treatment modalities.
Q.56. A women States that her last menstruation period was 7 weeks ago & that she had several days of light bleeding & lower abdominal discomfort. She ahs previously had a positive home pregnancy test. Which of the following studies would you request at this time?
A. Human chorionic Gonadotrophin.
B. Human placental lactogen.
C. Progesterone.
D. Estriol.
E. Prolactin.
Q.57. The main health hazard of menopause is?
A. Cardiovascular disease.
B. Pelvic relaxation.
C. Endometrial cancer.
D. Depression.
E. Osteoporosis.
Q.58. Postpartum hemorrhage could be a reasonable possibility in all of the following situations except?
A. Hydromnios.
B. Triplets.
C. Prolong labour.
D. Erythroblastosis.
E. Thrombocytopenia.
Q.59. Which of the following S/S needs not to be reported immediately as a potential danger signal in a pregnant woman?
A. Vaginal bleeding.
B. Sever headache.
C. Swelling of the ankle & feet.
D. Blurring of the vision.
E. Escape of fluid from the vagina.
Q.60. Deficiency of which of the following substances is likely in a pregnant vegetarian?
A. Folic acid.
B. Vitamin B12.
C. Protein.
D. Calcium.
E. Iron.
Q.61. Naegele’s for estimating a women’s due date is based on all of the following factors except?
A. Regular monthly menstrual cycles.
B. A pregnancy of 280 days.
C. Ovulation about day 14.
D. Cycle regulation with birth control pills prior to conception.
E. Conception at mid-cycle.
Q.62. Appropriate screening tests in an early, uncomplicated pregnancy include all of the following except?
A. Repeat serum HCG level.
B. Hemoglobin.
C. Serology.
D. Cervical cytology.
E. Blood type & Rh.
Q.63. Factors that can contribute to an acute urinary Tract infection during pregnancy, delivery, or the puerperium include all of the following except?
A. Compression of the ureter by the large uterus at the pelvic brim.
B. Increased urethral tone & peristalsis.
C. Asymptomatic bacteriuria.
D. Decreased bladder sensitivity after epidural anesthesia.
E. Bladder catheterization following delivery.
Q.64. Appropriate form of management for the pre-eclemptic patient [B.Pof 140/95 & 1+ proteinuria] include all of the following except?
A. Bed rest.
B. Non-stress tests.
C. Hospitalization.
D. Serial sonography of the fetus.
E. Diuretics.
Q.65. The most accurate & definitive documentation of fetal life is made by?
A. Fetoscope.
B. Leopoid maneuver.
C. Pelvic X-ray.
D. Real time.
E. Doppler
ultrasound.
Q.66. The average length of the menstrual cycle is?
A. 22 days.
B. 25 days.
C. 28 days.
D. 35 days.
E. 38 days.
Q.67. All of the following factors is associated with an increased risk of pelvic inflammatory disease except?
A. Onset of intercourse at age 15.
B. An elective abortion.
C. Oral contraceptive.
D. Hystero-salphingography.
E. Used of copper IUD.
Q.68. All of the following procedures can aid in the diagnosis of pelvic inflammatory disease except?
A. Laparoscopy.
B. Ultrasound.
C. Coldocentesis.
D. Rectal examination.
E. Hystero-salphingography.
Q.69. If a women present with chronic yeast infection, it is important to elicit a history of all of the following except?
A. Diabetes.
B. Pregnancy.
C. Use of antibiotics.
D. Use of oral contraceptive.
E. Use of vinegar douches.
Q.70. Atrophic vaginitis would be expected in all of the following Clinical situation except?
A. Menopause.
B. Lactation.
C. Oral contraceptive use.
D. Surgical castration in young women.
E. Psuedo-menopause during endometriosis therapy.
Q.71. For women over 35 years of age with abdominal uterine bleeding, the most accurate diagnostic procedure is?
A. Basal body temperature.
B. Endometrial biopsy.
C. Fractional dilatation & curettage.
D. Hysteroscopy.
E. Hormone therapy.
Q.72. All of the therapeutic procedures are recommended for ectopic pregnancies except?
A. Salpingectomy.
B. Salphingo-oophorectomy.
C. Linear Salpingectomy.
D. Segmental resection of the portion of the tube containing the ectopic pregnancy.
E. Milking the enrapture pregnancy from the tube.
Q.73. What is the most accurate method of diagnosing an ectopic pregnancy?
A. Pelvic ultrasound.
B. Culdocentesis.
C. Laparoscopy.
D. Measurement of serial B-HCG levels.
E. Endometrial biopsy.
Q.74. All the following factors are evidence that ovulation has Occurred except?
A. Rise in basal body temperature.
B. Pregnancy.
C. Progesterone level above 3 ng/ml.
D. Secretary endometrium.
E. The occurrence of menses.

Q75. Incidence is calculated by the number of?
A. Old case during the study period.
B. New case during the study.
C. New case at a point in time.
D. Old case at a point in time.
E. Existing cases at a study period.
Q.76. Which of the following would be the most valuable measurement in the monitoring the clinical response of a patient with acute hemorrhage?
A. Hematocrit.
B. Hemoglobin.
C. Vital signs.
D. Platelet count.
E. Volume of blood lost.
Q.77. The most important cause of epistaxis in children is?
A. Trauma.
B. Polyp.
C. Sinusitis.
D. Thrombocytopenia.
E. Dry air.
Q.78. The combination of Ataxia, a positive Babinski sing & absence of deep tendon reflexes of ankle indicate?
A. Ataxia telangiectasia.
B. Friedreich’ ataxia.
C. Ganglioneuroblastoma.
D. Parinaud syndrome [pinealoma]
E. Lead poisoning.
Q.79. All of the following are true in pyloric stenosis except?
A. Incidence in male is higher than in female.
B. Onset is generally late in the first month of life.
C. Jaundice occurs in association.
D. Vomitus is bile stained.
E. Appetite is good.
Q.80. Children are expected to walk alone without support by age?
A. 6 months.
B. 9 months.
C. 15 months.
D. 18 months.
E. 20 months.
Q.81. Gastric lavage is contraindicated after Ingestion of?
A. Aspirin.
B. Diazepam.
C. Castor beans.
D. Drain-cleaning solution.
E. Vitamin D.
Q.82. Apgar score takes all of the following except?
A. Blood pressure.
B. Heart rate.
C. Respiratory effort.
D. Color.
E. Muscles tone.
Q.83. Which statement is true about bacterial pneumonia in children?
A. It occurs following most upper respiratory infections.
B. It is unusual event in normal children.
C. Staphylococcus pneumonia is the leading cause.
D. Physical examination in infant is diagnostic.
E. The mortality
rate of pneumococcal pneumonia approaches 3-5%.
Q.84.The treatment of children with cleft palate may be complicated by?
A. Speech disorder.
B. Dental caries.
C. Malocclusion.
D. Otitis media.
E. Obstructed apnea.

Q.85. A new born Exhibits respiratory distress, low blood pressure, hyper resonance & diminished breath sounds over side of the chest. The most likely diagnosis is?
A. Staphylococcus pneumonia.
B. Hyaline membrane disease.
C. Pneumothorax.
D. Primary atelectasis.
E. Diaphragmatic hernia.
Q.86. Central cyanosis is present in the following except?
A. Transposition of great arteries.
B. Tricuspid atresia.
C. Total anomalous pulmonary venous drainage.
D. Isolated pulmonary stenosis.
E. Pulmonary atresia.

Q.87. Each of the following statements regarding oral rehydration therapy is true except?
A. It can be used to treat acute diarrhea in patients of all age.
B. Oral rehydration solution should contain 5 to 7% glucose.
C. Oral rehydration solution containing 45 mEq/l of sodium & those with 75 mEq/l of sodium generally is equally efficacious.
D. It has been used successfully to treat patients with Hyponatremia.
E. All of the above.
Q.88. A healthy infant is born at 30 weeks gestation. Size & development is appropriate for gestational age. Her mother wants to breast feed her. A true statement about breast-feeding for the preterm infant is?
A. The volume of the breast milk will be greater in mothers who have breast feed previously.
B. Human milk production is optimal if the mother expresses milk once daily until the infant begins nursing.
C. After only 30 weeks gestation, maternal milk production rarely is sufficient to permit breast-feeding.
D. The mother should begin expressing milk as soon as possible.
E. None of the above.
canada4all
13. What is the best time to treat PCP?
Before it happens! PCP is acquired when the CD4 count is below 200/mm3. At that point you
should institute PCP prophylaxis in an HIV-positive patient with trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole.
Pentamidine is an alternative.
14. Cover the two right-hand columns and specify the organism after looking at the buzz
phrase associated with it:
SCENARIO BUG(S) COMMENTS
Stuck with thorn or gardening Sporothrix schenckii Treat with oral potassium
iodide or ketoconazole
Aplastic crisis in sickle cell diseaseParvovirus B19
Sepsis after splenectomy S. pneumoniae, H. influenzas, N.
meningitis (encapsulated bugs)
Pneumonia in the Southwest Coccidioides immitis Treat with itraconazole or
(California, Arizona) fluconazole, amphotericin
B for severe disease
Pneumonia after cave exploring orHistoplasma capsulatum
exposure to bird droppings in Ohio
and Mississippi River valleys
Pneumonia after exposure to Chlamydia psittaci
a parrot or exotic bird
Fungus ball/hemoptysis after Aspergillus sp. See figure
tuberculosis or cavitary
lung disease
Pneumonia in a patient with Tuberculosis
silicosis
Diarrhea after hiking/drinking Giardia lamblia Stool cysts; treat with
from a stream metronidazole
Pregnant woman with cats Toxoplasma gondii See figure
B]2 deficiency and abdominal Diphyllobothrium latum
symptoms
Seizures with ring-enhancing Taenia solium (cysticercosis) See figure
brain lesion on CT or toxoplasmosis
Squamous cell bladder cancer Schistosoma haematobium
in Middle East or Africa
Worm infection in children Enterobius sp. Positive tape test, perianal
itching
Fever, muscle pain, eosinophilia,Trichinella spirails (trichinosis)
and periorbital edema after
eating raw meat
Gastroenteritis in young childrenRotavirus, Norwalk virus
Food poisoning after eating Bacillus cereus
reheated rice
Food poisoning after eating Vibrio parahemolyticus
raw seafood
Diarrhea after travel to Mexico E. coli (Montezuma's revenge)
Diarrhea after antibiotics Clostridium difficile Use metronidazole or van-
comycin
Baby paralyzed after eating Clostridium botulinum Toxin blocks acetylcholine
honey release
Genital lesions in children in Molluscum contagiosum
the absence of sexual abuse
or activity
Table continued on next page



--------------------------------------- 26

Infectious Diseases 121
SCENARIO BUG(S) COMMENTS
Cellulitis after cat/dog bites Pasteurella muhocida Treat cat bites with
prophylactic ampicillin
Slaughterhouse worker with fever Brucellosis
Pneumonia after being in hotel Legionella pneumophila Treat with azithromycin or
or near air conditioner or levofloxacin
water tower
Burn wound infection with Pseudomonas sp. S. aureus is also a common
blue/green color burn infection, but it lacks
blue-green color
Ring-enhancing brain lesion. The differential is quite
broad for such findings; thus the clinical history is impor-
tant. In this case, which occurred as a complication of
acute myelogenous leukemia and immune compromise, a
biopsy yielded Aspergillus spp. (From Hoffbrand AV,
Pettit JE: Color Atlas of Clinical Hematology, 3rd ed. St.
Louis, Mosby, 2000, p 142, with permission.)
Acute toxoplasmosis. A thick peripheral blood
film shows trophozoite forms of Toxoplasma
gondii from a ruptured monocyte. (From Hoff-
brand AV, Pettit JE: Color Atlas of Clinical Hema-



15. How is syphilis diagnosed?
Screen for syphilis with a rapid plasma reagin (RPR) or Venereal Disease Research Labora-
tory (VDRL) test. Confirm a positive test with a fluorescent treponemal antibody absorbed (FTA-
ABS) or microhemagglutination (MHA-TP) test because false positives occur with the RPR and
VDRL tests, classically in patients with lupus erythematosus. Once syphilis is treated, the RPR
and VDRL tests become negative, whereas the FTA-ABS and MHA-TP tests often remain posi-
tive for life. You also can scrape the base of a genital chancre or condyloma lata and look for
spirochetes on dark-field microscopy.
16. Which group of patients should always be screened for syphilis?
Pregnant women. Early treatment can prevent birth defects.
17. How is syphilis treated?
With penicillin. Use doxycycline for penicillin-allergic patients.
18. Describe the three stages of syphilis.
Primary stage: look for painless chancre that resolves on its own within 8 weeks.
Secondary stage: roughly 6 weeks to 18 months after infection; look for condyloma lata,
maculopapular rash (classically involves palms and soles of feet), and lymphadenopathy.
Tertiary stage: years after initial infection (between the secondary and tertiary stages is the
latent phase, in which the disease is quiet and asymptomatic). Look for gummas (granulomas in
many different organs), neurologic symptoms and signs (e.g., neurosyphilis, Argyll-Robertson
pupil, dementia, paresis, tabes dorsalis, Charcot joints), and/or thoracic aortic aneurysms.
19. How do you recognize measles (rubeola) infection in a child?
Look for a reason for lack of immunization. Pathognomonic Koplik's spots (tiny white spots
on buccal mucosa) are seen 3 days after high fever, cough, runny nose, and conjunctivitis with or
without photophobia. On the next day, a maculopapular rash begins on the head and neck and
spreads downward to cover the trunk (cephalocaudal progression). Treat supportively.
20. Describe the complications of measles.
Complications include giant-cell pneumonia, especially in very young and immunocompro-
mised patients; otitis media; and encephalitis, either acute or late (subacute sclerosing panen-
cephalitis, which usually occurs years later).
21. Why is rubella infection (German measles) an important disease?
Rubella is important mainly because infection in pregnant mothers can cause severe birth
defects in the fetus. Screen and immunize all women of reproductive age without evidence of
rubella antibodies before pregnancy to avoid this complication. Remember, however, that the
vaccine is contraindicated in pregnant women.
22. How do you recognize a rubella infection in children? What are the complications?
Rubella is milder than measles. Signs and symptoms include low-grade fever, malaise, and
tender swelling of the suboccipital a